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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Data Center
Exam Name: DCICN Introducing Cisco Data Center Networking
Exam Code: 200-150
Total Questions: 60 Q&As
Last Updated: May 24, 2017
Exam Information: http://www.gotocert.com/200-150.html

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Gotocert Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 200-150 Dumps Exam Q&As     

QUESTION 48
Which of the following servers does the Finder’s Connect to server command in Mac OS X v10.4 allow you connect to? (Choose Three)
A. WebDAV Server
B. SSH Server
C. AFP Server
D. FTP Server

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 49
What is the purpose of journaling in the Mac OS Extended (Journaled) file system?
A. To expedite file system repairs.
B. To provide support for file forks.
C. To accelerate Finder performance.
D. To provide the user with a journal that lists recently created files and directories.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 50
You work as a support technician at Certkiller .com. A Certkiller user complains that her Macintosh is exhibiting system problems. You tell the user to reboot her Macintosh in Firewire Target Disk Mode. You now want to troubleshoot the users Macintosh from your own Macintosh. Which of the following tasks will you be able to perform from your own Macintosh? (Choose Two)
A. Run Repair Disk from Disk Utility
B. Run Repair Disk Permissions from Disk Utility
C. Partition drive (non-destructive) from Disk Utility
D. Run Secure Erase from Disk Utility to defragment the drive
E. Enable System Administrator (root) login in NetInfo Manage

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 51
You work as a network administrator at Certkiller .com. You need to configure a Mac OS X computer to get authentication information from an LDAP server. What could you do? (Choose Two)
A. Enter the IP address of an LDAP server in the LDAP pane of Network preferences.
B. Use Directory Access to configure Mac OS X to get LDAP information from a DNS server.
C. Use the default configuration, which allows Mac OS X to use a DHCP-supplied LDAP server.
D. Use Sharing preferences to configure Mac OS X to use an Active Directory server as an LDAP server.
E. Use Directory Access to configure Mac OS X with the IP address, type and search base of a specific LDAP server.
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 52
Which of the following options in Disk Utility allows you to securely erase a hard disk? (Choose Three)
A. 7-Pass Erase
B. 12-Pass Erase
C. 35-Pass Erase
D. Zero Out Data
E. Erase and Lock Drive
F. Delete and Zero Out Files in Trash
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 53
In Mac OS X v10.4, how would you enable printing to printer shared by a Windows computer?
A. In Printer Setup Utility, Select the workgroup and printer from the Default Browser pane in the Printer Browser window, and click Add.
B. From the Printing pane of Print & Fax performances choose windows printers in the pop-up menu, then select the workgroup and printer
C. In the Print dialog, choose the workgroup from the windows Printer entry in the Printer pop-up menu, then select the printer from the list.
D. In Printer Setup Utility, click More Printers in the Printer Browser window and choose Windows Printing from the pop-up menu, then choose the workgroup, select the printer, and click Add.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 54
You work as the network administrator at Certkiller .com. All client computers run Mac OS X v10.4. You want to reduce the number of passwords Certkiller network users require to access different network service. Which of the following will allow you to accomplish your goal? (Choose Three)
A. Set up Kerberos environment on the network.
B. Have users store their login information for different servers in Keychain.
C. Set up a directory service to make user and password information available to all computers
D. Have users enables the Single Sign-on option in the Authentication pane of Network preferences

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 55
You have logged into a Mac OS X v10.4 computer with the Certk user account. You want to share a file with network guests. In which folder should you place the file?
A. /Users/Shared
B. /Users/Public
C. /users/Certk/Shared
D. /Users/Certk/Public

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 56
Exhibit:

You work as a support technician at Certkiller .com. All client computers run Mac OS X v10.4. A Certkiller
user complains that when he prints a PDF document to a network laser printer, the lower half of the last
line on each page does not print, as shown in the exhibit.
The last line prints properly for other users. What is the MOST LIKELY cause of this problem?

A. The printing system needs to be reset from Printer Setup Utility
B. Chris did not select the Full Page option in the Page Setup dialog
C. Chris added the printer via Apple Talk instead of Bonjour in Printer Setup Utility.
D. The correct printer is not chosen in the format for? Pop-up menu in the Page Setup dialog

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
You work as a support technician at Certkiller .com. A Certkiller user complains that web pages will not load on his iBook. Which of the following troubleshooting steps would be useful in troubleshooting this problem? (Choose Three)
A. Locate DNS servers on the network using Network Utility DNS Scan command.
B. Test direct IP connectivity using Network Utility Ping command.
C. Confirm Ethernet connectivity using Network Diagnostics.
D. Review the Network Activity report in Activity Monitor.
E. Verify the network settings in Network preferences.
F. Review the Activity Report in Network Monitor.

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 58
Which of the following statements are true regarding FTP on a Mac OS X v10.4 computer?
A. FTP service on Mac OS X v10.4 does not use usernames or passwords
B. FTP service on Mac OS X v10.4 requires that the firewall service be disabled.
C. FTP service on Mac OS X v10.4 is compatible only with other Mac OS X computers.
D. Remote users who connect to the computer over FTP can access files outside of their home directory

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 59
You work as the network administrator at Certkiller .com. You need to configure your Mac OS X v10.4 computer to allow other Mac OS X computers to send faxes through it. What should you do?
A. In Printer Setup Utility, choose Enable Sharing from the Fax/Modem menu.
B. Click the checkbox for Fax Sharing in the Services pane of Sharing preferences.
C. Select Printer Sharing in the Services pane of Sharing preferences and click the allow fax sharing checkbox.
D. Enable the Let others send faxes through this computer option in the Sharing pane of print & Fax preferences.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 60
Exhibit: When checking Network preferences you notice that Mac OS X v10.4 has just updated your port priority order and port status indicators as shown in the exhibit. What would have caused these changes?

A. The network cable has been disconnected.
B. The DHCP server has a new Air Port card installed.
C. An Air Port Bass Station has been moved closer to the computer.
D. The DHCP server on the Built-in Ethernet network is no longer available.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 61
Exhibit: You work as a technician at Certkiller .com. You have set up the Certkiller .com network as shown in the exhibit. You have configured Computer A to share its internet connection from the cable modem with computers B and C over Ethernet. With regard to this configuration, which of the following statements are true?

A. Internet Sharing is incompatible with cable modems.
B. Internet Sharing must be enabled on all three computers.
C. A computer running Mac OS X v10.4 can use Internet Sharing to share its Internet connection with only one other computer on the network.
D. Receiving and sharing an internet connection over the same Ethernet port on Computer A can cause network problems for other ISP customers.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 62
You work as the network administrator at Certkiller .com. Certkiller has both Macintosh and Windows client computers. You need to configure a Mac OS X v10.4 computer to share a USB printer for all users on the network. After configuring you Mac OS X to share the printer, what else must you do?
A. In Printer Setup Utility choose Windows from the Printer Sharing menu.
B. In Printer Setup Utility choose Windows Printing from the Printers menu.
C. In the Services pane of Sharing preferences click the Windows Sharing checkbox.
D. In the Sharing pane of Print & Fax preferences click the Windows Printing checkbox.

Correct Answer: C

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70-331 Exam – passed, that’s right today I would like to  boast  of it:). I get possibility to participate in two SharePoint trainings:

  • – Core Solutions of Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013
  • – Advanced Solutions of Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013

In the IT market, Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 70-331 exam is the way to success. It is very important to get skills in the field Core Solutions of Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013.

Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013
Exam Name: Core Solutions of Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013
Exam Code: 70-331
Total Questions: 226 Q&As
Last Updated: Mar 20, 2017
Exam Information:http://www.lead4pass.com/70-331.html

In the result a few days ago I’ve passed exam for the first training 70-331 exam. Well, I own MCP in SharePoint 2013! Of course I can’t share too many details but, I have to say: cloud is the future according to Microsoft. And we can see in the 70-331 exam questions. Also I have a few thoughts about Microsoft certification and they are not positive

70-331 exam

70-331 exam

70-331 exam QUESTION 24
Use optimal ServerMBean.ThreadPoolPercentSocketReaders to improve socket performance when WebLogic servers:
A. Are using native I/O performance pack
B. Are using pure-java socket handling rather than native performance pack
C. Are hosting high transaction-oriented operations
D. Are handling highly I/O bound operations
Correct Answer: B
70-331 exam QUESTION 25
What are the supported installation modes for WebLogic Server?
A. Graphical mode, console mode and secure mode
B. Graphical mode, console mode and silent mode
C. Script mode, console mode and silent mode
D. Script mode, console mode and secure mode
E. Script mode, network mode and silent mode
Correct Answer: B
70-331 exam QUESTION 26
Scenario : Consider an upgrade requirement from pre-WebLogic Server 9.x to the WebLogic Server 9.x.
Since the administration scripts in the prior version used WebLogic Ant, the team decides to use the Ant
build.xml approach and extend this to the current version of the server.
As part of the upgrade, due to a change in the database driver, the requirement was to change the URL
and driver name to the latest XA driver. Which of the following approaches would you choose?

A. Use a wlserver Ant task to query all MBeans of type JDBCConnectionPool and replace the driver’s information.
B. Use a wlconfig Ant task to query all MBeans of type JDBCConnectionPool and replace the driver’s information.
C. Use a wldeploy Ant task to redeploy all MBeans of type JDBCConnectionPool and replace the driver’s information.
D. Use wlpackage to search, replace and repackage the application after updating the driver information.

Correct Answer: B
70-331 exam QUESTION 27
Scenario : You have made the decision to migrate all your operations onto WebLogic Server. An application has been chosen from each department for the initial phase of migration one from each of Sales, Marketing, Accounts, and Customer Service. The applications will be deployed as individual EAR files to a cluster of WebLogic Server 9.x instances, each with a pool of connections to an Oracle 10g database that provides corporate and departmental data services. The database team hopes to upgrade the database to use Oracle RAC (Real Application Clusters) shortly, which will require you to configure multiple sets of connections. Connectivity to the existing Service Engineer Dispatch system is via a JMS message bridge. When a service engineer calls in with a report, a message is sent via JMS to the Customer Service application deployed in WebLogic Server. The customer record in the Customer Service database must be updated with details from the message. It is important that the message is not lost because the call management system is not able to resend messages. To address this, the Customer Service application is accessing a persistent JMS Queue using an XA compatible connection factory. When starting WebLogic Server, the Marketing database is unavailable. Which of these Data Source configuration options will ensure that the Marketing application can access its database once it becomes available again? Exhibit:

A. Test Connections On Reserve
B. Test Frequency
C. Connection Creation Retry Frequency
D. Login Delay
E. Profile Connection Reservation Wait

Correct Answer: C
70-331 exam QUESTION 28
Consider a WebLogic Server domain with four managed servers. Two managed servers “S1” and “S2” are part of cluster “A” and the other two (“S3” and “S4”) are part of cluster “B.” Server “S1” is hosting a JMSServer “JMS-server1” with four queues and two topics for the application “App” deployed to both the clusters. For some reason, the machine hosting the server “S1” crashed. The JMSServer “JMS-server1” needs to be reactivated for message production and consumption by the application and also the messages on the server “S1” need to be recovered. Which of the following must be done to reactivate the JMSServer and to recover all the messages from “S1”? Exhibit:

A. Migrate the JMS Service from “S1” to “S2”.
B. Migrate both the JMS Service and JTA Service from “S1” to “S2”.
C. Migrate the JMS Service from “S1” to “S3”.
D. Migrate both the JMS Service and JTA Service from “S1” to “S3”.

Correct Answer: B
70-331 exam QUESTION 29
An application deployed to a server “myserver” shows degraded performance with respect to database related calls and you have decided to capture the data about all the JDBC methods invoked including the arguments and return values by enabling “DebugJDBCSQL” using WLST (WebLogic Scripting Tool). Which one of the following would enable the debug?
A. connect(user, password, url) edit() cd(‘Servers/myserver/ServerDebug/myserver’) set(‘DebugJDBCSQL’,’true’) save()
B. connect(user, password, url) edit()
cd(‘Servers/myserver/ServerDebug/myserver’)
startEdit()
set(‘DebugJDBCSQL’,’true’)
save()
C. connect(user, password, url) edit() cd(‘Servers/myserver/ServerDebug/myserver’) startEdit() set(‘DebugJDBCSQL’,’true’) save() activate()
D. connect(user, password, url) edit() cd(‘Servers/myserver/ServerDebug/myserver’) startEdit() set(‘DebugJDBCSQL’,’true’) activate()

Correct Answer: C
70-331 exam QUESTION 30
Consider a WebLogic instance that reports several failures with respect to multiple subsystems and applications. Logging and debugging is enabled for all the subsystems including configuring diagnostic monitors to capture diagnostic data at both the system and application levels. If the requirement is to be able to perform the analysis in both online and off-line modes, which one of the following would help in meeting the requirement?
A. Configuring diagnostic archive
B. Redirecting the server standard output to a file
C. Capturing server log files
D. Configuring diagnostic monitors to log to a file

Correct Answer: A
70-331 exam QUESTION 31
A notification is an action that is triggered when a watch rule evaluates to true. What are the four main types of diagnostic notifications used with watches in the WebLogic 9.x Diagnostic Framework?
A. JMX, JMS, SMTP, SNMP
B. JMX, RMI, HTTP, HTTPS
C. HTTP, IIOP, T3, RMI
D. JMS, JWS, HTTP, JPD
Correct Answer: A
70-331 exam QUESTION 32
What are the four basic components of a JMS system-resource module in the config.xml in WebLogic 9.x?
A. Name, target, subdeployment, descriptor-file-name
B. Domain, jms-server, connection factory, destination
C. Config.xml, jms-module, subdeployment, descriptor-file-name
D. Name, jms-module, subdeployment, descriptor-file-name
Correct Answer: A
70-331 exam QUESTION 33
The default location for storing JMS persistent messages in WebLogic Server 9.x is: A. Database Store using JDBC
B. WebLogic Persistent Store using a file
C. LDAP server using the embedded LDAP server
D. Remote server using t3 socket buffering

Correct Answer: B
70-331 exam QUESTION 34
Scenario : While you are setting up a WebLogic Server domain for a fulfillment service application you have the following requirements: The Fulfillment application should be scalable and highly available; different users will use the application using a different DNS name. This application is also exposed to some business partners using other protocols in addition to HTTP and this site also needs to be configured for transport level security. Different certificates should be installed in the server for different clients (using different DNS names). Even the site should withstand hardware NIC failures too. The requirement is when the users access the Fulfillment application using a respective DNS name; automatically their application can be served by configuring the following WebLogic Server feature:
A. Connection filter
B. Virtual hosts
C. HTTP URL rules
D. Application deployment order

Correct Answer: B

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FC0-U51 exam

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Vendor: CompTIA
Certifications: CompTIA IT Fundamentals
Exam Name: CompTIA IT Fundamentals
Exam Code: FC0-U51
Total Questions: 286 Q&As
Last Updated: Mar 19, 2017
Exam Information:http://www.examwind.com/FC0-U51.html

FC0-U51 exam

The FC0-U51 exam focuses on the essential IT skills and knowledge needed to perform tasks commonly performed by advanced end-users and entry-level IT professionals alike, including:

  • Identifying and explaining computer components
  • Setting up a workstation, including conducting software installations
  • Establishing network connectivity
  • Identifying compatibility issues and identifying and preventing security risks
  • Managing the safety and preventative maintenance of computers
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Examwind Latest and Most Accurate FC0-U51 Exam Material Q&As:

fc0-u51 exam QUESTION 9
A single application needs to be deployed to multiple differing WebLogic server environments without modifying the existing deployment descriptors. Which one of the following would help in reconfiguring the application to be suitable for multiple environments?
A. Multiple J2EE deployment descriptors
B. Multiple WebLogic-specific deployment descriptors
C. Multiple deployment plans
D. Administration console

Correct Answer: C
fc0-u51 exam QUESTION 10
Scenario : While you are setting up a WebLogic Server domain for a fulfillment service application you have the following requirements: The Fulfillment application should be scalable and highly available; different users will use the application using a different DNS name. This application is also exposed to some business partners using other protocols in addition to HTTP and this site also needs to be configured for transport level security. Different certificates should be installed in the server for different clients (using different DNS names). Even the site should withstand hardware NIC failures too. When retailers access their website (using DNS name), automatically they should be taken to the Stock Control Management web application within the Fulfillment Service. This can be achieved by:
A. Specifying the Name of the Application to be empty when deploying Stock Control Management web application
B. Specifying a lower number as the deployment order while deploying Stock Control Management web application
C. Setting the staging mode for Stock Control Management web application as “Staged”
D. Configuring the Stock Management Web Application as the default application for the respective virtual host

Correct Answer: D
fc0-u51 exam QUESTION 11
Scenario : While you are setting up a WebLogic Server domain for a fulfillment service application you have the following requirements: The Fulfillment application should be scalable and highly available; different users will use the application using a different DNS name. This application is also exposed to some business partners using other protocols in addition to HTTP and this site also needs to be configured for transport level security. Different certificates should be installed in the server for different clients (using different DNS names). Even the site should withstand hardware NIC failures too. How can WebLogic Server leverage the multiple physical NICs available on the hardware and be configured to withstand NIC failures so that customers will have high-availability for their applications?
A. By configuring HTTP Parameters for the server
B. By configuring network channels for different NICs
C. By deploying and targeting different applications on different NICs directly
D. By enabling the Managed Server Independence mode flag for the respective WebLogic Server.

Correct Answer: B

 

fc0-u51 exam QUESTION 12
Which statement is true about SSL configuration?
A. SSL can be configured only at the domain level. All the servers in that domain use same SSL configuration.
B. SSL can be configured at the server level. All the servers in the domain can be configured to use their own SSL settings.
C. SSL can be configured at the cluster level. All the servers that are part of the clusters use the same SSL configuration.
D. Once you configure SSL, the normal listen port will be disabled and cannot be used while the SSL port is enabled.

Correct Answer: B
fc0-u51 exam QUESTION 13
Which of the following must have exactly ONE provider configured?
A. Authentication provider
B. Adjudication provider
C. Authorization provider
D. Role Mapper provider
E. Keystore provider

Correct Answer: B
fc0-u51 exam QUESTION 14
Which of the following is NOT a state for a WebLogic Server instance?
A. RUNNING
B. STANDBY
C. PENDING
D. ADMIN

Correct Answer: C
fc0-u51 exam QUESTION 15
When configuring JMS Modules using the WebLogic Administration Console or WLST, the module information will be stored in:
A. <modulename> stanza in the weblogic-application.xml file.
B. <modulename> stanza in the config\config.xml file.
C. <domain>/config/jms/<modulename>-jms.xml file
D. <domain>/servers/<servername>/targets/jms/<modulename>_<servername>.xml
Correct Answer: C
fc0-u51 exam QUESTION 16
What WLST best practice should you keep in mind before manipulating JMS MBeans?
A. Making sure that the WebLogic Domain is started before using WLST.
B. Use general, non-meaningful names.
C. Trap for Null MBean objects (such as servers, JMS Servers, modules).
D. Create your JMS sub-deployments before your JMS resources.
Correct Answer: C
fc0-u51 exam QUESTION 17
Configuration Auditing provides data that is primarily intended for
A. Creating a list of configuration changes.
B. Creating a command journal to rerun after a failure.
C. Producing debug logs of console actions.
D. Recording WebLogic Server console login attempts.

Correct Answer: A
fc0-u51 exam QUESTION 18
Scenario : Consider a production server deployment wherein the development team has no access to the production servers. The Administrative team owns the responsibility of deployments, upgrades and supporting the applications hosted on these servers. The decision was for a development and administrative team to use off-line and online WLST scripts to deploy and support the application. During debugging, if there is a need for the development team to review and recreate a similar server configuration, which one of the following approaches would you adopt?
A. Create a WLST off-line script using duplicateDomain and send it to the development team to recreate the server configuration.
B. Send all server configuration files and have them recreate the server configuration using WLST parse scripts.
C. Create a WebLogic Server domain template using WLST and send it to the development team to recreate the configuration.
D. Use the WebLogic admin console to save the domain configuration and send it to the development team.

Correct Answer: C
fc0-u51 exam QUESTION 19
Scenario : Consider a b2b commerce application hosted on a WebLogic cluster with JMS messages being received, processed, and forwarded to external servers. The server log indicates a potential stuck thread problem where threads are continually getting stuck and JMX monitoring indicates a continuous backlog of pending messages that could be due to any of the in-flight messages, delayed messages, or messages being inhibited from delivery. To prevent all threads from getting stuck, which of the following approaches would you adopt?
A. Increase the StuckThreadsMaxTime setting and StuckThreadTimerInterval to change stuck thread monitoring parameters.
B. Configure a Work Manager shutdown trigger and have the server move to admin mode for further debugging outside of production.
C. Create a new Work Manager for the application that reports stuck threads, to prevent the default Work Manager from thread starvation.
D. Write a cron job to monitor threads and restart threads using a timer.
Correct Answer: B

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70-346 PDF

Microsoft Office 365 Identities and Requirements is a certification exam focused on the administration of a Microsoft Office 365 tenant in a corporate environment. This course delves into the various topics covered on the 70-346 exam including provisioning, implementing, and managing the products and features of Office 365. The purpose of this Nugget course is to prepare the learner to deploy and maintain Office 365 in their own environment and pass the 70-346 pdf.

Exam Code: 70-346
Exam Name: Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements
Updated: Mar 08, 2017
Q&As: 153
Published: February 17, 2014
Languages: English, Chinese (Simplified), French, German, Japanese, Portuguese (Brazil), Spanish
Audiences:IT professionals
Technology: Microsoft Office 365
Credit toward certification: MCP, MCSA
Exam Information:http://www.pass4itsure.com/70-346.html

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What you will Learn:

  • Provisioning Office 365
  • Planning and Implementing Networking and Security in Office 365
  • Managing Cloud Identities
  • Implementing and Managing Identities by Using Azure AD Connect
  • Implementing and Managing Federated Identities for Single Sign-on (SSO)
  • Monitoring and Troubleshooting Office 365 Availability and Usage

The journey of becoming a certified professional is a rigorous one, but at the end surely your skill set will entirely reformed and you will welcomed with open arms in the relevant industry. To be professional, you have to get certificate of Microsoft 70-346 exam. To attain certificate you have to pass your exam. Without preparing, you cannot pass your Microsoft 70-346 vce.

Share some Microsoft Specialist 70-346 Exam Questions and Answers Below:

Question No : 1  A company migrates to Office 365. 2,000 active users have valid Office 365 licenses assigned. An additional 5,000 user accounts were created during the migration and testing processes. These users do not have any licensesassigned. You need to remove the Office 365 user accounts that do not have any licenses assigned by using the least amount of administrative effort. Which Windows PowerShell command should you run?
A. Get-MsolUser -All -EnabledFilter “DisabledOnly” | Remove-MsolUser -Force
B. Get-MsolUser-EnabledFilter “DisabledOnly” | Remove-MsolUser -Force
C. Get-MsolUser -All -UnlicensedUsersOnly | Remove-MsolUser -Force
D. Get-MsolUser -UnlicensedUsersOnly | Remove-MsolUser–Force
Answer: C

Question No : 2 DRAG DROP  Litware Inc. has an Office 365 Enterprise El plan. Employees have access to all Office 365
services. Employees in the human resources (HR) department must continue to use the on-premises SharePoint 2013 deployment due to legal requirements. You need to disable access to SharePoint Online for all HR department employees.
How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell commands? To answer, drag the appropriate Windows PowerShell segment to the correct location or locations in the answer area. Each Windows PowerShell segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
70-346 pdf

 

Question No : 3 HOTSPOT  A company deploys an Office 365 tenant. You prepare to use the bulk add tool to add users to Office 365. You need to prepare a file to use with the bulk add tool. Which fields must you include in the file? To answer, drag the appropriate response to each field. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

70-346 pdf

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Question No : 4 DRAG DROP  A company has 50 employees that use Office 365. You need to enforce password complexity requirements for all accounts. How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell command? To answer, drag
the appropriate Windows PowerShell segment to the correct location or locations. Each Windows PowerShell segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

70-346 pdf

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Question No : 5 DRAG DROP  You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. Your company uses Office 365 for
collaboration. You must reset the password for all of the employees in your company. You need to ensure that all employees create a new password the next time they sign in to Office 365. How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell command? To answer, drag the appropriate Windows PowerShell segment to the correct location or locations. Each
Windows PowerShell segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
70-346 pdf

 

Question No : 6  You are the Office 365 administrator for your company.
You must use Windows PowerShell to manage cloud identities in Office 365. You must use
a computer that runs Windows 8 to perform the management tasks.
You need to ensure that the Windows 8 computer has the necessary software installed.
What should you install first?
A. Microsoft Office 365 Best Practices Analyzer for Windows PowerShell
B. Windows PowerShell 4.0
C. Remote Server Administration Tools for Windows
D. Microsoft Online Services Sign-in Assistant
Answer: D

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300-115 PDF

Exam Code: 300-115
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks (SWITCH v2.0)
Updated: Feb 21, 2017
Q&As: 201
Exam Information:http://www.passitexams.com/300-115.html

300-115 PDF
I’m starting out with the exam blueprint which can be found here.

    • Freemind mind maps application to help me make a picture of the topics and visually connect them. This helps to visualize what you are studying.
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    • Obviously GNS3, VirtualBox and when IOU doesn’t cut it, I’ll find something to help me out with the switchig part, the routing is 100% done in GNS3. You have it here all together, there are newer versions but I like to keep things as stable as possible so I go along with even release nmbers, right now I’m using version 1.3.10.

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QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 PDF
A network engineer wants to analyze all incoming and outgoing packets for an interface that is connected to an access switch. Which three items must be
configured to mirror traffic to a packet sniffer that is connected to the distribution switch? (Choose three.)
A. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a physical interface as the source and the remote SPAN VLAN as the destination
B. A remote SPAN VLAN on the distribution and access layer switch
C. A monitor session on the access switch with a physical interface source and the remote SPAN VLAN as the destination
D. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a remote SPAN VLAN as the source and physical interface as the destination
E. A monitor session on the access switch with a remote SPAN VLAN source and the physical interface as the destination
F. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a physical interface as the source and a physical interface as the destination
Correct Answer: BCD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
You can analyze network traffic passing through ports or VLANs by using SPAN or RSPAN to send a copy of the traffic to another port on the switch or on another
switch that has been connected to a network analyzer or other monitoring or security device. SPAN copies (or mirrors) traffic received or sent (or both) on source
ports or source VLANs to a destination port for analysis.
RSPAN supports source ports, source VLANs, and destination ports on different switches (or different switch stacks), enabling remote monitoring of multiple
switches across your network. The traffic for each RSPAN session is carried over a user-specified RSPAN VLAN that is dedicated for that RSPAN session in all
participating switches. The RSPAN traffic from the source ports or VLANs is copied into the RSPAN VLAN and forwarded over trunk ports carrying the RSPAN
VLAN to a destination session monitoring the RSPAN VLAN. Each RSPAN source switch must have either ports or VLANs as RSPAN sources. The destination is
always a physical port
Reference:

QUESTION 7
After an EtherChannel is configured between two Cisco switches, interface port channel 1 is in the down/down state. Switch A is configured with channel-group 1
mode active, while Switch B is configured with channel-group 1 mode desirable. Why is the EtherChannel bundle not working?
A. The switches are using mismatched EtherChannel negotiation modes.
B. The switch ports are not configured in trunking mode.
C. LACP priority must be configured on both switches.
D. The channel group identifier must be different for Switch A and Switch B.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Here we have a situation where one switch is using active mode, which is an LACP mode, and the other is using desirable, which is a PAGP mode. You can not
mix the LACP and PAGP protocols to form an etherchannel. Here is a summary of the various etherchannel modes:
EtherChannel PAgP Modes
Mode Description
auto Places a port into a passive negotiating state, in which the port responds to PAgP packets it receives but does not start PAgP packet negotiation. This setting
minimizes the transmission of PAgP packets.
This mode is not supported when the EtherChannel members are from differ- ent switches in the switch stack (cross-stack EtherChannel).
desirable Places a port into an active negotiating state, in which the port starts negotia- tions with other ports by sending PAgP packets.
This mode is not supported when the EtherChannel members are from differ- ent switches in the switch stack (cross-stack EtherChannel).
EtherChannel LACP Modes
Mode Description
active Places a port into an active negotiating state in which the port starts negotia- tions with other ports by sending LACP packets.
passive Places a port into a passive negotiating state in which the port responds to LACP packets that it receives, but does not start LACP packet negotiation. This
setting minimizes the transmission of LACP packets.
Reference:

QUESTION 8
An EtherChannel bundle has been established between a Cisco switch and a corporate web server. The network administrator noticed that only one of the
EtherChannel links is being utilized to reach the web server. What should be done on the Cisco switch to allow for better EtherChannel utilization to the corporate
web server?
A. Enable Cisco Express Forwarding to allow for more effective traffic sharing over the EtherChannel bundle.
B. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on destination IP addresses.
C. Disable spanning tree on all interfaces that are participating in the EtherChannel bundle.
D. Use link-state tracking to allow for improved load balancing of traffic upon link failure to the server.
E. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on source IP addresses.
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
EtherChannel load balancing can use MAC addresses, IP addresses, or Layer 4 port numbers, and either source mode, destination mode, or both. The mode you
select applies to all EtherChannels that you configure on the switch. Use the option that provides the greatest variety in your configuration. For example, if the
traffic on a channel only goes to a single MAC address (which is the case in this example, since all traffic is going to the same web server), use of the destination
MAC address results in the choice of the same link in the channel each time. Use of source addresses or IP addresses can result in a better load balance.
Reference:

QUESTION 9
Interface FastEthernet0/1 is configured as a trunk interface that allows all VLANs. This command is configured globally:
monitor session 2 filter vlan 1 – 8, 39, 52
What is the result of the implemented command?
A. All VLAN traffic is sent to the SPAN destination interface.
B. Traffic from VLAN 4 is not sent to the SPAN destination interface.
C. Filtering a trunked SPAN port effectively disables SPAN operations for all VLANs.
D. The trunk’s native VLAN must be changed to something other than VLAN 1.
E. Traffic from VLANs 1 to 8, 39, and 52 is replicated to the SPAN destination port.
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The “monitor session filter” command is used to specify which VLANS are to be port mirrored using SPAN. This example shows how to monitor VLANs 1 through
5 and VLAN 9 when the SPAN source is a trunk interface:
Switch(config)# monitor session 2 filter vlan 1 – 5 , 9
Reference:

QUESTION 10
A network engineer notices inconsistent Cisco Discovery Protocol neighbors according to the diagram that is provided. The engineer notices only a single
neighbor that uses Cisco Discovery Protocol, but it has several routing neighbor relationships. What would cause the output to show only the single neighbor?
A. The routers are connected via a Layer 2 switch.
B. IP routing is disabled on neighboring devices.
C. Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled locally.
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisements are inconsistent between the local and remote devices.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If all of the routers are connected to each other using a layer 2 switch, then each router will only have the single switch port that it connects to as its neighbor.
Even though multiple routing neighbors can be formed over a layer 2 network, only the physical port that it connects to will be seen as a CDP neighbor. CDP can
be used to determine the physical topology, but not necessarily the logical topology.

QUESTION 11
After the implementation of several different types of switches from different vendors, a network engineer notices that directly connected devices that use Cisco
Discovery Protocol are not visible. Which vendor-neutral protocol could be used to resolve this issue?
A. Local Area Mobility
B. Link Layer Discovery Protocol
C. NetFlow
D. Directed Response Protocol
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP) is a vendor-neutral link layer protocol in the Internet Protocol Suite used by network devices for advertising their identity,
capabilities, and neighbors on an IEEE 802 local area network, principally wired Ethernet. LLDP performs functions similar to several proprietary protocols, such
as the Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP). Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Link_Layer_Discovery_Protocol

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PR000041 Dumps Practice Questions – Updated 2017

PR000041 exam

Exam Code: PR000041
Exam Name: PowerCenter Data Integration 9.x:Developer Specialist
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
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NO.1 Of the statements below, which best describes the underlying process taken when a user
connects to a PowerCenter Repository Service for the first time? For the puposes of this question, the
PowerCenter Developer is the only PowerCenter client application running, there are 2 nodes in the
domain, node 1 is a gateway node and node 2 is a worker node. The PowerCenter Repository Service
is running on the worker node.
A. The user connects to the service manager of the worker node that is running the Repository
Service, is then authenticated, authorized, and connected to the PowerCenter Repository Service
B. The user connects directly and immediately to the Repository Service
C. The user connects to the service manager of the gateway node, and after authentication and
authorization, is re- Assigned to the Repository Service
D. The user first connects to the PowerCenter Integration Service and then after authentication and
authorization, is connected to the PowerCenter Repository Service
Answer: C

NO.2 A Pipeline Normalizer transformation will reflect one input port for each occurs value which Is
greater than 1.
A. False
B. True
Answer: B

QUESTION 3
An Update Strategy transformation has the Forward Rejected Rows attribute unchecked. Which statement is correct and true?
A. Records that are tagged for rejection are projected downstream to the next transformation so long as the ports are connected properly
B. Records that are tagged for rejection are dropped and not projected downstream to the next transformation
C. The Forward Rejected Rows attribute cannot be cleared after the transformation is created
D. The Forward Rejected Rows attribute is only applicable when records are tagged for rejection upstream of the Update Strategy transformation

Correct Answer: B
300-320 vce QUESTION 4
An Unconnected Stored Procedure can run in the following fashions?(Choose all that apply) Choose 3 answers
A. From an expression
B. As a Post-Session SQL command
C. As a Pre-Session SQL command
D. As the only object In the mapping
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 5
Which of the following Is NOT true of Aggregate functions?
A. You can place an aggregate function in a variable port
B. You can add a filter condition to calculate values for specific rows In the selected ports
C. You can use operators to perform arithmetic within the function
D. You can calculate a single value for all rows in a group
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 6
Which statement on workflows is correct?
A. In a default configuration, a workflow must contain at least one session task
B. A workflow can contain multiple start points
C. In a default configuration, a workflow parameter file overrides all parameter files in underlying sessions
D. Another workflow cannot be executed from within a workflow

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 7
Which of these statements is correct concerning a Lookup transformation’s persistent cache?
A. A persistent cache is stored on disk, and must be named to make it useable in multiple mappings
B. persistent cache is stored on disk, to refresh the cache the disk files must be deleted manually
C. When the Integration Service cannot find the persistent cache file and the recache property is not set, the session fails
D. A persistent cache can only be used by one mapping

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 8
The HTTP Transformation supports which HTTP Methods? (Choose all that apply) Choose 2 answers
A. DELETE
B. GET
C. POST
D. PUT
Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 9
Which of following statements is valid for Dynamic lookups?
A. Dynamic caching cannot be enabled on a lookup that returns multiple rows per search
B. A dynamic lookup can only be used with insert mappings, i.e. no update strategies are allowed and the session should be configured as Insert
C. A dynamic lookup must be cached and persistent
D. It is possible to update and delete records in a dynamic lookup

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 10
In the Expression transformation graphic below, what is the value of the PREVIOUS_STATE port for row 2, given that the value for the STATE port was ‘CA’ for row 1?

A. STATE
B. ‘CA’
C. NULL
D. Value of the PREVI0US_STATE port is based upon its declared default value
Correct Answer: B

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300-206

300-206 dumpsCCNP Security 300-206 SENSS study guide

Cisco 300-206 dumps is an important part of Cisco certification and Passcert has the latest CCNP Security 300-206 SENSS study guide to prepare you for this test.Passcert CCNP Security 300-206 SENSS study guide provides you an easy online solution to your Cisco 300-206 exam Preparation. With Passcert CCNP Security 300-206 SENSS study guide,you will find it easy to pass your 300-206 exam.Passcert guarantees that you will be easily able to succeed in your 300-206 Certification Exam.

We are dedicated to our vocation and do not compromise with our standards at all. Our main purpose is the care of its top specifications and obviously your achievements. We endow experts with 100% qualified and effective Cisco 300-206 exam Cisco Certified Network Professional Security exam classes which perform an important and key part to clear Cisco 300-206 certification 100% efficiently and start new opinions of achievements. We guarantee to make you 300-206 qualified by delivering best study materials and components. We offer the applicants with personalized and constantly improved Cisco 300-206 study materials.

QUESTION 16
The Cisco Email Security Appliance can be managed with both local and external users of different privilege levels. What three external modes of authentication are supported? (Choose three.)
A. LDAP authentication
B. RADIUS Authentication
C. TACAS
D. SSH host keys
E. Common Access Card Authentication
F. RSA Single use tokens
Correct Answer: ABD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
A network administrator is creating an ASA-CX administrative user account with the following parameters:
The user will be responsible for configuring security policies on network devices.
The user needs read-write access to policies.
The account has no more rights than necessary for the job.
What role will be assigned to the user?
A. Administrator
B. Security administrator
C. System administrator
D. Root Administrator
E. Exec administrator
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Which tool provides the necessary information to determine hardware lifecycle and compliance details for deployed network devices?
A. Prime Infrastructure
B. Prime Assurance
C. Prime Network Registrar
D. Prime Network Analysis Module
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Which three compliance and audit report types are available in Cisco Prime Infrastructure? (Choose three.)
A. Service
B. Change Audit
C. Vendor Advisory
D. TAC Service Request
E. Validated Design
F. Smart Business Architecture
Correct Answer: ABC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

images (2)

QUESTION 20
Cisco Security Manager can manage which three products? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco IOS
B. Cisco ASA
C. Cisco IPS
D. Cisco WLC
E. Cisco Web Security Appliance
F. Cisco Email Security Appliance
G. Cisco ASA CX
H. Cisco CRS
Correct Answer: ABC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
Which two web browsers are supported for the Cisco ISE GUI? (Choose two.)
A. HTTPS-enabled Mozilla Firefox version 3.x
B. Netscape Navigator version 9
C. Microsoft Internet Explorer version 8 in Internet Explorer 8-only mode
D. Microsoft Internet Explorer version 8 in all Internet Explorer modes
E. Google Chrome (all versions)
Correct Answer: AC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
When a Cisco ASA is configured in multicontext mode, which command is used to change between contexts?
A. changeto config context
B. changeto context
C. changeto/config context change
D. changeto/config context 2
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:300-320 vce
QUESTION 23
Which statement about the Cisco Security Manager 4.4 NAT Rediscovery feature is true?
A. It provides NAT policies to existing clients that connect from a new switch port.
B. It can update shared policies even when the NAT server is offline.
C. It enables NAT policy discovery as it updates shared polices.
D. It enables NAT policy rediscovery while leaving existing shared polices unchanged.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 24
When you install a Cisco ASA AIP-SSM, which statement about the main Cisco ASDM home page is true?
A. It is replaced by the Cisco AIP-SSM home page.
B. It must reconnect to the NAT policies database.
C. The administrator can manually update the page.
D. It displays a new Intrusion Prevention panel.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 25
Which Cisco product provides a GUI-based device management tool to configure Cisco access routers?
A. Cisco ASDM
B. Cisco CP Express
C. Cisco ASA 5500
D. Cisco CP
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 26
Which statement about Cisco IPS Manager Express is true?
A. It provides basic device management for large-scale deployments.
B. It provides a GUI for configuring IPS sensors and security modules.
C. It enables communication with Cisco ASA devices that have no administrative access.
D. It provides greater security than simple ACLs.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Which three conditions can cause BGP neighbor establishment to fail? (Select three)
A. There is an access list blocking all TCP traffic between the two BGP neighbors.
B. The EBGP neighbor is not directly connected, and the ebgp-multi-hop option is set to the default valu
C. The IBGP neighbor is not directly connected.
D. BGP synchronization is enabled in a Transit AS with fully-meshed IBGP neighbors.
E. The BGP update interval is different between the two BGP neighbors.
F. The BGP neighbor is referencing an incorrect AS number in its neighbor statement.
Answer: A,B,F

cisco 300-101 route training program, 300-101 dumps, 300-101 route test

Which three of the statements below correctly describe the characteristics of Autonomous Systems in routed networks? (Select three)
A. Within an AS, all routers must run either BGP or IBGP.
B. An AS uses exterior gateway protocols (EGPs) to exchange information with other autonomous systems.
C. An AS is a group of routers under the same technical administration.
D. Within an AS, routes learned through BGP can be redistributed using interior gateway protocols.
E. Within an AS, routes learned through an interior protocol cannot be redistributed using BGP to other autonomous systems.
Answer: B,C,D

What are the two reasons for the appearance of 0.0.0.0 as the next hop for a network when using the “show ip bgp” command? (Choose two)
A. The network was originated via redistribution of an interior gateway protocol into BGP.
B. The network was defined by a static route.
C. The network was learned via IBGP.
D. The network was learned via EBGP.
E. The network was originated via a network or aggregate command.
Answer: A,E

What are two rules for compacting IPv6 addresses? (Choose two.)
A. Every 16-bit segment segment that consists of all zeroes can be represented with a single colon.
B. The trailing zeroes in any 16-bit segment do not have to be written.
C. The leading zeroes in any 16-bit segment do not have to be written.
D. Any single, continuous string of one or more 16-bit segments that consists of all zeroes can be represented with a double colon.
E. The maximum number of times a double colon can replace a 16-bit segment that consists of all zeroes is two.
F. Two zeroes in the middle of any 16-bit segment do not have to be written.
Answer: C,D   210-060 pdf

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They are certified in using advanced IP addressing and routing in implementing scalable and highly secure Cisco routers that are connected to LANs, WANs, and IPv6. Below are the details of Cisco 300-101 Route exam objectives.

10% 5.0 Infrastructure Security

5.1 Describe IOS AAA using local database
5.2 Describe device security using IOS AAA with TACACS+ and RADIUS
5.2.a AA with TACACS+ and RADIUS
5.2.b Local privilege authorization fallback
5.3 Configure and verify device access control
5.3.a Lines (VTY, AUX, console)
5.3.b Management plane protection
5.3.c Password encryption
5.4 Configure and verify router security features
5.4.a IPv4 access control lists (standard, extended, time-based)
5.4.b IPv6 traffic filter
5.4.c Unicast reverse path forwarding

20% 6.0 Infrastructure Services

6.1 Configure and verify device management
6.1.a Console and VTY
6.1.b Telnet, HTTP, HTTPS, SSH, SCP
6.1.c (T)FTP
6.2 Configure and verify SNMP
6.2.a V2
6.2.b V3
6.3 Configure and verify logging
6.3.a Local logging, syslog, debugs, conditional debugs
6.3.b Timestamps
6.4 Configure and verify Network Time Protocol (NTP)
6.4.a NTP master, client, version 3, version 4
6.4.b NTP authentication
6.5 Configure and verify IPv4 and IPv6 DHCP
6.5.a DHCP client, IOS DHCP server, DHCP relay
6.5.b DHCP options (describe)
6.6 Configure and verify IPv4 Network Address Translation (NAT)
6.6.a Static NAT, dynamic NAT, PAT
6.7 Describe IPv6 NAT
6.7.a NAT64
6.7.b NPTv6
6.8 Describe SLA architecture
6.9 Configure and verify IP SLA
6.9.a ICMP
6.10 Configure and verify tracking objects
6.10.a Tracking objects
6.10.b Tracking different entities (for example, interfaces, IPSLA results)
6.11 Configure and verify Cisco NetFlow
6.11.a NetFlow v5, v9
6.11.b Local retrieval
6.11.c Export (configuration only)

300-101 dumps

300-101 Exam Question 1

For security purposes, an IPv6 traffic filter was configured under various interfaces on the local router. However, shortly aft er implementing the traffic filter, OSPFv3 neighbor adjacencies were lost. What caused this issue?
A.  The traffic filter is blocking all ICMPv6 traffic.
B.  The global anycast address must be added to the traffic filter to allow OSPFv3 to work properly.
C.  The link-local addresses that were used by OSPFv3 were explicitly denied, which caused the neighbor relationships to fail.
D.  IPv6 traffic filtering can be implemented only on SVIs.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:

OSPFv3 uses link-local IPv6 addresses for neighbor discovery and other features, so if any IPv6 traffic filters are implemented be sure to include the link local address so that it is permitted in the filter list.\

 

 

300-101 Exam Question 2
What is the purpose of the autonomous-system {autonomous-system-number} command?
A.  It sets the EIGRP autonomous system number in a VRF.
B.  It sets the BGP autonomous system number in a VRF.
C.  It sets the global EIGRP autonomous system number.
D.  It sets the global BGP autonomous system number.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:

To configure the autonomous-system number for an Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) routing process to run with
in a VPN routing and forwarding (VRF) instance, use the autonomous-system command in address-family configuration mode. To remove the autonomous-system for an EIGRP routing process from within a VPN VRF instance, use the no form of this command.

 

300-101 Exam Question 3
Which type of traffic does DHCP snooping drop?
A. discover messages
B. DHCP messages where the source MAC and client MAC do not match
C. traffic from a trusted DHCP server to client
D. traffic from a trusted DHCP server to client
D. DHCP messages where the destination MAC and client MAC do not match
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:

The switch validates DHCP packets received on the untrusted interfaces of VLANs with DHCP snooping enabled. The switch forwards  the DHCP packet unless any of the following conditions occur (in which case the packet is dropped):The switch receives a packet (such as a DHCPOFFER,DHCPACK, DHCPNAK, or DHCPLEASEQUERY packet) from a DHCP server outside the network or firewall.
The switch receives a packet on an untrusted interface,and the source MAC address and the DHCP client hardware address do not match.This check is performed only if the DHCP snooping MAC address verification option is turned on.The switch receives a DHCPRELEASE or DHCPDE CLINE message from an untrusted host with an entry in the DHCP snooping binding table, and the interface information in the binding table does not match the interface on which the message was received. The switch receives a DHCP packet that includes a relay agent IP address that is not 0.0.0.0. To support trusted edge switches that are connected to untrusted aggregation-switch ports, you can enable the DHCP option-82 on untrusted port feature, which enables untrusted aggregation- switch ports to accept DHCP packets that include option-82 information. Configure the port on the edge switch that connects to the aggregation switch as a trusted

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QUESTION 26
When you define a new LDAP configuration in Directory Access, you might need to enter a distinguished name and password for the connection. The distinguished name is the ________.
A. name of the root user on the server
B. canonical name of a normal user on the Mac OS X client computer
C. short name of a user with administrator permission on the client computer
D. logical path specifying the user record required by your LDAP server to perform queries

Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27
You disable anonymous binding on the Mac OS X Server LDAP server by ________.
A. adding the following line to the /etc/hostconfig file: LDAPSERVER_BINDANON=-NO-
B. adding the following line to the /etc/openldap/slapd.conf file: disallow bind_anon
C. adding the following line to the /etc/openldap/ldap.conf file: disallow anon_binding
D. issuing the following command to the server: sudo NeST -setLDAPConfig “BIND_ANON” off

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
Which command would create a backup of the key distribution center (KDC)?
A. sudo kdbexport -all > /etc/secured/kdc_backup
B. sudo kdb5_util dump > /etc/secured/kdc_backup
C. sudo kadmin.local -export /etc/secured/kdc_backup
D. kadmin -p diradmin -q kdc_export > /etc/secured/kdc_backup

Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 29
Which statement is NOT true of the krb5kdc process running in Mac OS X Server v10.4?
A. The process is started by launchd.
B. The process reads its configuration data from kdc.conf.
C. The process communicates on UDP and TCP/IP port 88.
D. The process reads its service principals in the local LDAP database.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 30
You are using an LDAP browsing utility such as LDapper to browse user records in the LDAP directory served by a Mac OS X Server computer. Which attribute in the LDAP database maps to the UniqueID attribute in an Open Directory user record?
A. uid
B. guid
C. uidNumber
D. apple-generateduid

Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:  200-310 pdf
QUESTION 31
When troubleshooting directory services issues, what is a limitation of using the -d option with the lookupd process?
A. The lookupd process is interactive.
B. The lookupd process is used to find information on DNS resolution.
C. The results of the lookupd process are from a new instance of lookupd.
D. If configured to use DSAgent, lookupd -d will get the same results as the DirectoryService process.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 32
Which statement about using the Active Directory plug-in to access user records is true?
A. The user home folder must be on an SMB server.
B. Mac OS X will use password policies set by the Active Directory administrator.
C. Address Book will automatically look up user contact information stored in the Kerberos realm.
D. By default, the plug-in generates a unique user ID based upon the user account uniqueID value in the Active Directory domain.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 33
In an Open Directory user record, what value should the NFSHomeDirectory attribute contain?
A. the local file system path to the user home folder
B. the IP address of the NFS server providing network home folders
C. the URL used to mount the share point containing the user home folder
D. the ID for the mount record that mounts the share point providing the user home folder
Correct Answer: A Section: (none)Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 10
You are troubleshooting an intermittent video issue on an eMac. Which of the following is the most appropriate way to approach this problem?
A. Do nothing. The problem may resolve itself.
B. Run looping diagnostics to verify the issue.
C. Follow component isolation steps to resolve the issue.
D. Replace the Display/Analog Assembly inside the eMac.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 11
Which of the following would be the most appropriate question to ask FIRST, when gathering information from customers about a problem with their Apple product?
A. What is the issue?
B. What operating system are you using?
C. Did you turn off the computer improperly?
D. Is this the first time you have had this problem?

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
You are troubleshooting a Power Mac G5 that will not boot, and emits error tones when powered on. You suspect that the customer may have installed incompatible or faulty RAM, but you aren’t sure. What should you do to verify the RAM requirements for this Power Mac G5?
A. Call Apple
B. Order Apple RAM
C. Check Specifications
D. Count the RAM sockets on the logic board.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
Which of the following is the best way to eject a disc when normal methods for ejecting it, such as using the Mac OS Finder or the keyboard, have not succeeded?
A. Boot into Open Firmware and type ‘reset-nvram’.
B. Restart the computer while holding down the mouse button.
C. Remove and disassemble the optical drive to remove the disc.
D. Remove the computer’s front bezel and manually pry the disc out of the drive.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
You have replaced the video card in a Power Macintosh G5. In what THREE ways should you test the repair before returning the system to the customer?
A. Leave the computer on overnight.
B. Verify that the original symptom is resolved.
C. Verify that no new symptoms have occurred.
D. Run all Apple Service Diagnostic tests for the Power Mac G5.
E. Run Apple Service Diagnostic video tests for the Power Mac G5.
F. Start up the computer in Target Disk Mode to test the internal hard drive.

Correct Answer: BCD   200-310 pdf
QUESTION 15
A customer’s Power Mac G5 fails to power on when connected to a known-good power outlet with a known-good power cord. Which of the following steps should be tried FIRST?
A. Replace the processor(s)
B. Replace the power supply.
C. Reset the logic board PMU.
D. Run Apple Service Diagnostic.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 16
Which of the following is ALMOST CERTAINLY a software-related problem?
A. No video on display
B. Single beep at startup
C. No Internet connectivity
D. iPhoto quits when launched

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 17
An eMac has no video, but powers on with a normal startup chime, and normal startup sounds from the hard drive. Which of the following steps should you try next?
A. Update the eMac’s firmware.
B. Replace the eMac logic board.
C. Replace the eMac Display/Analog Assembly.
D. Connect a known-good VGA display to the eMac.

Correct Answer: D

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