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Competitive Cisco Certified Specialist 300-630 exam questions q1-q15:

QUESTION 1

Refer to the exhibit. Two application profiles are configured in the same tenant and different VRFs. Which contract
the scope is configured to allow communication between the two application profiles?

A. global
B. VRF
C. application
D. tenant

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/1-x/Operating_ACI/guide/b_Cisco_Operating_ACI/b_Cisco_Operating_ACI_chapter_01000.html

Refer to the exhibit. Two application profiles are configured in the same tenant and different VRFs. Which contract
scope is configured to allow communication between the two application profiles?
A. global
B. VRF
C. application
D. tenant

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/1-x/Operating_ACI/guide/b_Cisco_Operating_ACI/b_Cisco_Operating_ACI_chapter_01000.html
E. Deploy a Layer 4 to Layer 7 service graph with PBR

QUESTION 2

A network engineer configured an active-active firewall cluster that is stretched across separate pods in the Cisco ACI
fabric. Which two implementation setups for anycast services are available? (Choose two.)

A. Modify the Cisco ACI contract scope
B. Modify the MAC address on the second firewall
C. Configure the firewalls behind an EPG subnet
D. Deselect No Default SVI Gateway under EPG Subnet
E. Deploy a Layer 4 to Layer 7 service graph with PBR

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3

Where are STP BPDUs flooded in Cisco ACI fabric?

A. in the bridge domain VLAN
B. in the native VLAN ID
C. in the access encapsulation VLAN part of different VLAN pools
D. in the VNID that is assigned to the FD VLAN

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/application-centricinfrastructure/white-paper-c11-737909.html

QUESTION 4

An engineer configures a Cisco ACI Multi-Pod for disaster recovery. Which action should be taken for the new nodes to
be discoverable by the existing Cisco APICs?

A. Enable subinterfaces with dot1q tagging on all links between the IPN routers.
B. Configure IGMPv3 on the interfaces of IPN routers that face the Cisco ACI spine.
C. Enable DHCP relay on all links that are connected to Cisco ACI spines on IPN devices.
D. Configure BGP as the underlay protocol in IPN.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5

An engineer must limit local and remote endpoint learning to the bridge domain subnet. Which action should be taken
inside the Cisco APIC?

A. Disable Remote EP Learn
B. Enable Enforce Subnet Check
C. Disable Endpoint Dataplane Learning
D. Enable Limit IP Learning to Subnet

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/application-centricinfrastructure/white-paper-c11-739989.html

QUESTION 6

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer wants to avoid connectivity problems for the endpoint EP1 when it reaches an external L3Out network through the gateway 10.2.2.254/24. Which two configurations must be implemented in BD-BD2? (Choose two.)

A. Disable unicast-routing
B. Enable IP data plane learning for the VRF
C. Disable ARP flooding
D. Enable ARP flooding
E. Enable unicast-routing

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 7

Which feature should be disabled on a bridge domain when a default gateway for endpoints is on an external device
instead of a Cisco ACI bridge domain SVI?

A. unicast-routing
B. ARP flooding
C. unknown unicast flooding
D. proxy ARP

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8

Refer to the exhibit. Between Cisco UCS Fls and Cisco ACI leaf switches, CDP is disabled, the LLDP is enabled, and
LACP is in Active mode. Which two discovery protocols and load-balancing mechanism combinations can be
implemented for the DVS? (Choose two.)

A. CDP enabled, LLDP disabled, and LACP Active
B. CDP disabled, LLDP enabled, and MAC Pinning
C. CDP enabled, LLDP disabled, and MAC Pinning
D. CDP enabled, LLDP enabled, and LACP Active
E. CDP enabled, LLDP disabled, and LACP Passive
F. CDP disabled, LLDP enabled, and LACP Passive

Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 9

DRAG-DROP
An engineer must migrate servers from a legacy data center infrastructure to a Cisco ACI fabric. Drag and drop the
steps from the left into the order that they must be completed on the right to ensure the least amount of downtime.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 10

What is the purpose of the Forwarding Tag (FTAG) in Cisco ACI?

A. FTAG is used in Cisco ACI to add a label to the iVXLAN traffic in the fabric to apply the correct policy.
B. FTAG is used in Cisco ACI to add a label to the VXLAN traffic in the fabric to apply the correct policy.
C. FTAG trees in Cisco ACI are used to load balance unicast traffic.
D. FTAG trees in Cisco ACI are used to load balance multi-destination traffic.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/1-x/aci-fundamentals/b_ACIFundamentals/b_ACI-Fundamentals_chapter_010010.html#concept_1E8BF286E1C043EF839D80935FDF9F50

QUESTION 11

Refer to the exhibit. Which two configurations enable inter-VRF communication? (Choose two.)

A. Set the subnet scope to Shared Between VRFs
B. Enable Advertise Externally under the subnet scope
C. Change the contract scope to Tenant
D. Change the subject scope to VRF
E. Export the contract and import as a contract interface

Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 12

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration must be implemented on L3Out EBGP to advertise out of the fabric
172.16.2.0/24 network that is learned from L3Out OSPF?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13

Cisco ACI fabric is migrated from network-centric mode to application-centric model. What is possible in an application-centric design?

A. remapping of VLAN pools
B. migration of bare metal servers to virtual machines
C. creation of additional EPGs under one bridge domain
D. Cisco ACI VMM integration with hypervisors

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14

How is broadcast forwarded in Cisco ACI Multi-Pod after ARP flooding is enabled?

A. For the specific bridge domain, all spines forward the broadcast frames to IPN routers
B. Broadcast frames are forwarded inside the pod and across the IPN using the multicast address that is associated to
the bridge domain
C. Within a pod, the ingress leaf switch floods the broadcast frame on all fabric ports
D. Ingress replication is used on the spines to forward broadcast frames in the IPN infrastructure

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15

DRAG-DROP
Drag and drop the tenant implementation designs from the left onto the outcomes of the design when a greenfield Cisco ACI fabric is deployed on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

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QUESTION 1
Under the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), what must be included in a written agreement between the
controller and processor in relation to processing conducted on the controller\\’s behalf?
A. An obligation on the processor to report any personal data breach to the controller within 72 hours.
B. An obligation on both parties to report any serious personal data breach to the supervisory authority.
C. An obligation on both parties to agree to a termination of the agreement if the other party is responsible for a
personal data breach.
D. An obligation on the processor to assist the controller in complying with the controller\\’s obligations to notify the
supervisory authority about personal data breaches.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What is the main reason to begin with 3-5 key metrics during the program development process?
A. To avoid undue financial costs.
B. To keep the focus on the main organizational objectives.
C. To minimize selective data use.
D. To keep the process limited to as few people as possible.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
SCENARIO
Please use the following to answer the next question:
As they company\\’s new chief executive officer, Thomas Goddard wants to be known as a leader in data
protection. Goddard recently served as the chief financial officer of Hoopy.com, a pioneer in online video
viewing with millions of users around the world. Unfortunately, Hoopy is infamous within privacy protection
circles for its ethically questionable practices, including unauthorized sales of personal data to marketers.
Hoopy also was the target of credit card data theft that made headlines around the world, as at least two
million credit card numbers were thought to have been pilfered despite the company\\’s claims that
“appropriate” data protection safeguards were in place. The scandal affected the company\\’s business as
competitors were quick to market an increased level of protection while offering similar entertainment and
media content. Within three weeks after the scandal broke, Hoopy founder and CEO Maxwell Martin,
Goddard\\’s mentor, was forced to step down.
Goddard, however, seems to have landed on his feet, securing the CEO position at your company,
Medialite, which is just emerging from its start-up phase. He sold the company\\’s board and investors on
his vision of Medialite building its brand partly on the basis of industry-leading data protection standards
and procedures. He may have been a key part of a lapsed or even rogue organization in matters of privacy
but now he claims to be reformed and a true believer in privacy protection. In his first week on the job, he
calls you into his office and explains that your primary work responsibility is to bring his vision for privacy to
life. But you also detect some reservations. “We want Medialite to have absolutely the highest standards,”
he says. “In fact, I want us to be able to say that we are the clear industry leader in privacy and data
protection. However, I also need to be a responsible steward of the company\\’s finances. So, while I want
the best solutions across the board, they also need to be cost effective.”
You are told to report back in a week\\’s time with your recommendations. Charged with this ambiguous
mission, you depart the executive suite, already considering your next steps.
The company has achieved a level of privacy protection that established new best practices for the
industry. What is a logical next step to help ensure a high level of protection?
A. Brainstorm methods for developing an enhanced privacy framework
B. Develop a strong marketing strategy to communicate the company\\’s privacy practices
C. Focus on improving the incident response plan in preparation for any breaks in protection
D. Shift attention to privacy for emerging technologies as the company begins to use them
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
SCENARIO
Please use the following to answer the next question:
It\\’s just what you were afraid of. Without consulting you, the information technology director at your
organization launched a new initiative to encourage employees to use personal devices for conducting
business. The initiative made purchasing a new, high-specification laptop computer an attractive option,
with discounted laptops paid for as a payroll deduction spread over a year of paychecks. The organization
is also paying the sales taxes. It\\’s a great deal, and after a month, more than half the organization\\’s
employees have signed on and acquired new laptops. Walking through the facility, you see them happily
customizing and comparing notes on their new computers, and at the end of the day, most take their
laptops with them, potentially carrying personal data to their homes or other unknown locations. It\\’s
enough to give you data-protection nightmares, and you\\’ve pointed out to the information technology
Director and many others in the organization the potential hazards of this new practice, including the
inevitability of eventual data loss or theft.
Today you have in your office a representative of the organization\\’s marketing department who shares with
you, reluctantly, a story with potentially serious consequences. The night before, straight from work, with
laptop in hand, he went to the Bull and Horn Pub to play billiards with his friends. A fine night of sport and
socializing began, with the laptop “safely” tucked on a bench, beneath his jacket. Later that night, when it
was time to depart, he retrieved the jacket, but the laptop was gone. It was not beneath the bench or on
another bench nearby. The waitstaff had not seen it. His friends were not playing a joke on him. After a
sleepless night, he confirmed it this morning, stopping by the pub to talk to the cleanup crew. They had not
found it. The laptop was missing. Stolen, it seems. He looks at you, embarrassed and upset.
You ask him if the laptop contains any personal data from clients, and, sadly, he nods his head, yes. He believes it
contains files on about 100 clients, including names, addresses and governmental identification numbers. He sighs and
places his head in his hands in despair.
In order to determine the best course of action, how should this incident most productively be viewed?
A. As the accidental loss of personal property containing data that must be restored.
B. As a potential compromise of personal information through unauthorized access.
C. As an incident that requires the abrupt initiation of a notification campaign.
D. As the premeditated theft of company data, until shown otherwise.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
SCENARIO
Please use the following to answer the next question:
Perhaps Jack Kelly should have stayed in the U.S. He enjoys a formidable reputation inside the company,
Special Handling Shipping, for his work in reforming certain “rogue” offices. Last year, news broke that a
police sting operation had revealed a drug ring operating in the Providence, Rhode Island office in the
United States. Video from the office\\’s video surveillance cameras leaked to news operations showed a
drug exchange between Special Handling staff and undercover officers.
In the wake of this incident, Kelly had been sent to Providence to change the “hands off” culture that upper
management believed had let the criminal elements conduct their illicit transactions. After a few weeks
under Kelly\\’s direction, the office became a model of efficiency and customer service. Kelly monitored his
workers\\’ activities using the same cameras that had recorded the illegal conduct of their former coworkers.
Now Kelly has been charged with turning around the office in Cork, Ireland, another trouble spot. The
company has received numerous reports of the staff leaving the office unattended. When Kelly arrived, he
found that even when present, the staff often spent their days socializing or conducting personal business
on their mobile phones. Again, he observed their behaviors using surveillance cameras. He issued written
reprimands to six staff members based on the first day of video alone.
Much to Kelly\\’s surprise and chagrin, he and the company are now under investigation by the Data
Protection Commissioner of Ireland for allegedly violating the privacy rights of employees. Kelly was told
that the company\\’s license for the cameras listed facility security as their main use, but he does not know
why this matters. He has pointed out to his superiors that the company\\’s training programs on privacy
protection and data collection mention nothing about surveillance video.
You are a privacy protection consultant, hired by the company to assess this incident, report on the legal
and compliance issues, and recommend next steps.
What does this example best illustrate about training requirements for privacy protection?
A. Training needs must be weighed against financial costs.
B. Training on local laws must be implemented for all personnel.
C. Training must be repeated frequently to respond to new legislation.
D. Training must include assessments to verify that the material is mastered.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
SCENARIO
Please use the following to answer the next question:
Natalia, CFO of the Nationwide Grill restaurant chain, had never seen her fellow executives so anxious.
Last week, a data processing firm used by the company reported that its system may have been hacked,
and customer data such as names, addresses, and birthdays may have been compromised. Although the
attempt was proven unsuccessful, the scare has prompted several Nationwide Grill executives to question
the company\\’s privacy program at today\\’s meeting.
Alice, a vice president, said that the incident could have opened the door to lawsuits, potentially damaging Nationwide
Grill\\’s market position. The Chief Information Officer (CIO), Brendan, tried to assure her that even if there had been an
actual breach, the chances of a successful suit against the company were slim. But Alice remained unconvinced.
Spencer – a former CEO and currently a senior advisor – said that he had always warned against the use of contractors
for data processing. At the very least, he argued, they should be held contractually liable for telling customers about any
security incidents. In his view, Nationwide Grill should not be forced to soil the company name for a problem it did not
cause.
One of the business development (BD) executives, Haley, then spoke, imploring everyone to see reason. “Breaches
can happen, despite organizations\\’ best efforts,” she remarked. “Reasonable preparedness is key.” She reminded
everyone of the incident seven years ago when the large grocery chain Tinkerton\\’s had its financial information
compromised after a large order of Nationwide Grill frozen dinners. As a longtime BD executive with a solid
understanding of Tinkerton\\’s\\’s corporate culture, built up through many years of cultivating relationships, Haley was
able to successfully manage the company\\’s incident response.
Spencer replied that acting with reason means allowing security to be handled by the security functions within the
company – not BD staff. In a similar way, he said, Human Resources (HR) needs to do a better job training employees
to prevent incidents. He pointed out that Nationwide Grill employees are overwhelmed with posters, emails, and memos
from both HR and the ethics department related to the company\\’s privacy program. Both the volume and the
duplication of information means that it is often ignored altogether.
Spencer said, “The company needs to dedicate itself to its privacy program and set regular in-person trainings for all
staff once a month.”
Alice responded that the suggestion, while well-meaning, is not practical. With many locations, local HR departments
need to have flexibility with their training schedules. Silently, Natalia agreed.
How could the objection to Spencer\\’s training suggestion be addressed?
A. By requiring training only on an as-needed basis.
B. By offering alternative delivery methods for trainings.
C. By introducing a system of periodic refresher trainings.
D. By customizing training based on length of employee tenure.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which of the following controls does the PCI DSS framework NOT require?
A. Implement strong asset control protocols.
B. Implement strong access control measures.
C. Maintain an information security policy.
D. Maintain a vulnerability management program.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
SCENARIO
Please use the following to answer the next question:
As they company\\’s new chief executive officer, Thomas Goddard wants to be known as a leader in data
protection. Goddard recently served as the chief financial officer of Hoopy.com, a pioneer in online video
viewing with millions of users around the world. Unfortunately, Hoopy is infamous within privacy protection
circles for its ethically questionable practices, including unauthorized sales of personal data to marketers.
Hoopy also was the target of credit card data theft that made headlines around the world, as at least two
million credit card numbers were thought to have been pilfered despite the company\\’s claims that
“appropriate” data protection safeguards were in place. The scandal affected the company\\’s business as
competitors were quick to market an increased level of protection while offering similar entertainment and
media content. Within three weeks after the scandal broke, Hoopy founder and CEO Maxwell Martin,
Goddard\\’s mentor, was forced to step down.
Goddard, however, seems to have landed on his feet, securing the CEO position at your company, Medialite, which is
just emerging from its start-up phase. He sold the company\\’s board and investors on his vision of Medialite building its
brand partly on the basis of industry-leading data protection standards and procedures. He may have been a key part of
a lapsed or even rogue organization in matters of privacy but now he claims to be reformed and a true believer in
privacy protection. In his first week on the job, he calls you into his office and explains that your primary work
responsibility is to bring his vision for privacy to life. But you also detect some reservations. “We want Medialite to have
absolutely the highest standards,” he says. “In fact, I want us to be able to say that we are the clear industry leader in
privacy and data protection. However, I also need to be a responsible steward of the company\\’s finances. So, while I
want the best solutions across the board, they also need to be cost effective.”
You are told to report back in a week\\’s time with your recommendations. Charged with this ambiguous mission, you
depart the executive suite, already considering your next steps.
You are charged with making sure that privacy safeguards are in place for new products and initiatives. What is the best
way to do this?
A. Hold a meeting with stakeholders to create an interdepartmental protocol for new initiatives
B. Institute Privacy by Design principles and practices across the organization
C. Develop a plan for introducing privacy protections into the product development stage
D. Conduct a gap analysis after deployment of new products, then mend any gaps that are revealed
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
What does it mean to “rationalize” data protection requirements?
A. Evaluate the costs and risks of applicable laws and regulations and address those that have the greatest penalties
B. Look for overlaps in laws and regulations from which a common solution can be developed
C. Determine where laws and regulations are redundant in order to eliminate some from requiring compliance
D. Address the less stringent laws and regulations, and inform stakeholders why they are applicable
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
SCENARIO
Please use the following to answer the next question:
As the Director of data protection for Consolidated Records Corporation, you are justifiably pleased with
your accomplishments so far. Your hiring was precipitated by warnings from regulatory agencies following
a series of relatively minor data breaches that could easily have been worse. However, you have not had a
reportable incident for the three years that you have been with the company. In fact, you consider your
program a model that others in the data storage industry may note in their own program development.
You started the program at Consolidated from a jumbled mix of policies and procedures and worked
toward coherence across departments and throughout operations. You were aided along the way by the
program\\’s sponsor, the vice president of operations, as well as by a Privacy Team that started from a clear
understanding of the need for change.
Initially, your work was greeted with little confidence or enthusiasm by the company\\’s “old guard” among
both the executive team and frontline personnel working with data and interfacing with clients. Through the
use of metrics that showed the costs not only of the breaches that had occurred, but also projections of the
costs that easily could occur given the current state of operations, you soon had the leaders and key
decision-makers largely on your side. Many of the other employees were more resistant, but face-to-face
meetings with each department and the development of a baseline privacy training program achieved
sufficient “buy-in” to begin putting the proper procedures into place.
Now, privacy protection is an accepted component of all current operations involving personal or protected
data and must be part of the end product of any process of technological development. While your
approach is not systematic, it is fairly effective.
You are left contemplating:
What must be done to maintain the program and develop it beyond just a data breach prevention
program?
How can you build on your success?
What are the next action steps?
What process could most effectively be used to add privacy protections to a new, comprehensive program
being developed at Consolidated?
A. Privacy by Design.
B. Privacy Step Assessment.
C. Information Security Planning.
D. Innovation Privacy Standards.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
SCENARIO
Please use the following to answer the next question:
You lead the privacy office for a company that handles information from individuals living in several
countries throughout Europe and the Americas. You begin that morning\\’s privacy review when a contracts
officer sends you a message asking for a phone call. The message lacks clarity and detail, but you
presume that data was lost.
When you contact the contracts officer, he tells you that he received a letter in the mail from a vendor
stating that the vendor improperly shared information about your customers. He called the vendor and
confirmed that your company recently surveyed exactly 2000 individuals about their most recent
healthcare experience and sent those surveys to the vendor to transcribe it into a database, but the vendor
forgot to encrypt the database as promised in the contract. As a result, the vendor has lost control of the
data.
The vendor is extremely apologetic and offers to take responsibility for sending out the notifications. They
tell you they set aside 2000 stamped postcards because that should reduce the time it takes to get the
notice in the mail. One side is limited to their logo, but the other side is blank and they will accept whatever
you want to write. You put their offer on hold and begin to develop the text around the space constraints.
You are content to let the vendor\\’s logo be associated with the notification.
The notification explains that your company recently hired a vendor to store information about their most
recent experience at St. Sebastian Hospital\\’s Clinic for Infectious Diseases. The vendor did not encrypt the
information and no longer has control of it. All 2000 affected individuals are invited to sign-up for email
notifications about their information. They simply need to go to your company\\’s website and watch a quick
advertisement, then provide their name, email address, and month and year of birth.
You email the incident-response council for their buy-in before 9 a.m. If anything goes wrong in this situation, you want
to diffuse the blame across your colleagues. Over the next eight hours, everyone emails their comments back and forth.
The consultant who leads the incident-response team notes that it is his first day with the company, but he has been in
other industries for 45 years and will do his best. One of the three lawyers on the council causes the conversation to
veer off course, but it eventually gets back on track. At the end of the day, they vote to proceed with the notification you
wrote and use the vendor\\’s postcards.
Shortly after the vendor mails the postcards, you learn the data was on a server that was stolen, and make the decision
to have your company offer credit monitoring services. A quick internet search finds a credit monitoring company with a
convincing name: Credit Under Lock and Key (CRUDLOK). Your sales rep has never handled a contract for 2000
people, but develops a proposal in about a day which says CRUDLOK will:
1.
Send an enrollment invitation to everyone the day after the contract is signed.
2.
Enroll someone with just their first name and the last-4 of their national identifier.
3.
Monitor each enrollee\\’s credit for two years from the date of enrollment.
4.
Send a monthly email with their credit rating and offers for credit-related services at market rates.
5.
Charge your company 20% of the cost of any credit restoration.
You execute the contract and the enrollment invitations are emailed to the 2000 individuals. Three days later you sit down and document all that went well and all that could have gone better. You put it in a file to reference the next time
an incident occurs.
What is the most concerning limitation of the incident-response council?
A. You convened it to diffuse blame
B. The council has an overabundance of attorneys
C. It takes eight hours of emails to come to a decision
D. The leader just joined the company as a consultant
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
SCENARIO
Please use the following to answer the next question:
You lead the privacy office for a company that handles information from individuals living in several
countries throughout Europe and the Americas. You begin that morning\\’s privacy review when a contracts
officer sends you a message asking for a phone call. The message lacks clarity and detail, but you
presume that data was lost.
When you contact the contracts officer, he tells you that he received a letter in the mail from a vendor
stating that the vendor improperly shared information about your customers. He called the vendor and
confirmed that your company recently surveyed exactly 2000 individuals about their most recent
healthcare experience and sent those surveys to the vendor to transcribe it into a database, but the vendor
forgot to encrypt the database as promised in the contract. As a result, the vendor has lost control of the
data.
The vendor is extremely apologetic and offers to take responsibility for sending out the notifications. They
tell you they set aside 2000 stamped postcards because that should reduce the time it takes to get the
notice in the mail. One side is limited to their logo, but the other side is blank and they will accept whatever
you want to write. You put their offer on hold and begin to develop the text around the space constraints.
You are content to let the vendor\\’s logo be associated with the notification.
The notification explains that your company recently hired a vendor to store information about their most
recent experience at St. Sebastian Hospital\\’s Clinic for Infectious Diseases. The vendor did not encrypt the information and no longer has control of it. All 2000 affected individuals are invited to sign-up for email
notifications about their information. They simply need to go to your company\\’s website and watch a quick
advertisement, then provide their name, email address, and month and year of birth.
You email the incident-response council for their buy-in before 9 a.m. If anything goes wrong in this
situation, you want to diffuse the blame across your colleagues. Over the next eight hours, everyone
emails their comments back and forth. The consultant who leads the incident-response team notes that it
is his first day with the company, but he has been in other industries for 45 years and will do his best. One of the three
lawyers on the council causes the conversation to veer off course, but it eventually gets back on track. At the end of the
day, they vote to proceed with the notification you wrote and use the vendor\\’s postcards.
Shortly after the vendor mails the postcards, you learn the data was on a server that was stolen, and make the decision
to have your company offer credit monitoring services. A quick internet search finds a credit monitoring company with a
convincing name: Credit Under Lock and Key (CRUDLOK). Your sales rep has never handled a contract for 2000
people, but develops a proposal in about a day which says CRUDLOK will:
1.
Send an enrollment invitation to everyone the day after the contract is signed.
2.
Enroll someone with just their first name and the last-4 of their national identifier.
3.
Monitor each enrollee\\’s credit for two years from the date of enrollment.
4.
Send a monthly email with their credit rating and offers for credit-related services at market rates.
5.
Charge your company 20% of the cost of any credit restoration.
You execute the contract and the enrollment invitations are emailed to the 2000 individuals. Three days later you sit
down and document all that went well and all that could have gone better. You put it in a file to reference the next time
an incident occurs.
Regarding the credit monitoring, which of the following would be the greatest concern?
A. The vendor\\’s representative does not have enough experience
B. Signing a contract with CRUDLOK which lasts longer than one year
C. The company did not collect enough identifiers to monitor one\\’s credit
D. You are going to notify affected individuals via a letter followed by an email
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
SCENARIO
Please use the following to answer the next question:
Ben works in the IT department of IgNight, Inc., a company that designs lighting solutions for its clients.
Although IgNight\\’s customer base consists primarily of offices in the US, some individuals have been so
impressed by the unique aesthetic and energy-saving design of the light fixtures that they have requested
IgNight\\’s installations in their homes across the globe.
One Sunday morning, while using his work laptop to purchase tickets for an upcoming music festival, Ben
happens to notice some unusual user activity on company files. From a cursory review, all the data still
appears to be where it is meant to be but he can\\’t shake off the feeling that something is not right. He
knows that it is a possibility that this could be a colleague performing unscheduled maintenance, but he
recalls an email from his company\\’s security team reminding employees to be on alert for attacks from a
known group of malicious actors specifically targeting the industry.
Ben is a diligent employee and wants to make sure that he protects the company but he does not want to
bother his hard-working colleagues on the weekend. He is going to discuss the matter with this manager first thing in the
morning but wants to be prepared so he can demonstrate his knowledge in this area and plead his case for a
promotion.
If this were a data breach, how is it likely to be categorized?
A. Availability Breach.
B. Authenticity Breach.
C. Confidentiality Breach.
D. Integrity Breach.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Refer to the Scenario:
Bittersweet Coffee Company (BCC).

37820X exam questions-q1
Your initial bid response has been designed to meet only the customer\\’s stated needs from the RFP. Which feature
brings added value to your solution without incurring any additional cost to the customer?
A. On demand call recording and reporting for any user
B. HTML based call accounting reports
C. Meet-me audio conferencing
D. Centralized management of wired network switches
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.

37820X exam questions-q2
You have just finished your discovery conversation with a multi-location, midsize customer. What would you do to use
the generic functional UCandC architecture shown in the exhibit?
A. Create a version of this diagram for each location.
B. Add the specific product names for components in your solution.
C. Cross out functionality not requested by the customer.
D. Add In quantities for each of the components in your solution.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
In an IP Office environment, which one can be run on the Vantage device?
A. Vantage Connect Client
B. Avaya IXTM Workplace Client
C. Avaya Equinox Attendant
D. IP Office Web Client
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 4
You have just completed a series of discovery conversations with a customer. To summarize the results of your
conversations, what would you create to show each of the customer contacts you met with?
A. A design diagram for each person
B. An architectural diagram for each person
C. A single architectural diagram
D. A single design diagram
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
Refer to the Scenario: HandH Ticket.

37820X exam questions-q5

The HandH Ticket company wants to replace their DEFINITY systems with a solution for which they can easily obtain
parts and maintenance. The customer contact wants to know why they should migrate to IP Office”* and not Avaya
Aura? In addition to telling them that this solution was purpose-built to support midsize enterprises with up to 3000
users, what else would you tell them?
A. IP Office Includes built-in apps such as voicemail, audio and web collaboration, mobility, IM and Presence.
B. The IP Office can be virtualized in either a Nutanix or a VMware environment.
C. IP Office integrates with a multi-channel contact center solution that can migrate to Avaya Aura Contact Center.
D. IP Office uses many of the same components and applications such as SBCE and System Manager.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
You are speaking with a customer who has a large multi-site enterprise, and limited IT staff to support a new
communications system. They like the idea of housing the primary call control in a reliable data center, but do not have
such an environment. In their business today. Local survivability is critical as reliable communications is a core function
of their business. Based on these factors, which IP OfficeTM deployment model would meet the customer
requirements?
A. Private Cloud
B. Public Cloud
C. Hybrid Cloud
D. On-Premise
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 7
Web Traveling.com is using Outlook with an Exchange server. You have proposed that the customer use
the Outlook plug-In.
What does this plug-In do for the users at Web Travellng.com?
A. It adds Avaya IX Workplace Client functionality to the Outlook window.
B. It adds Outlook access to the Avaya IX Workplace Client for IP Office.
C. it adds Outlook access to the one-X Portal desktop.
D. it adds a subset of one-X Portal functionality to the Outlook window.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 8
Which agent application uses the Communication Control Toolkit (CCT) function in Avaya Contact Center Select
(ACCS)?
A. one-X Agent
B. Avaya Communicator
C. Avaya Agent Desktop
D. Agent Desktop Display
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
One of the security enhancements in the Powered By IP 0ffice offer is SIP Registrar Hardening that
enables Better control to allow SIP clients to register using a whitelist and blacklist.
To which platform is this functionality relevant?
A. SCN IP500 V2
B. Expansion IP500 V2
C. Linux servers
D. CentOS servers
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Refer to the Scenario: IT-FAC.

37820X exam questions-q10
IT-FAC Is very concerned about reliability since they need the ability to always make calls and receive calls. They are
not as concerned about reliability of messaging and other forms of collaboration. Based on the above information, what
Is required in the IP Office solution to provide backup for their SIP trunks and Session Border Controller for Enterprise
(SBCE)?
A. Add an E1 or T1 line with a combo card.
B. Add a second Portwell SBCE to provide High Availability (HA).
C. Add Plain Old Telephone Service (POTS) lines and analog modules to the IP500 V2.
D. Duplicate all of the SIP trunks, add another Portwell SBCE and High Availability (HA. licenses.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
With the Avaya J100 Series IXTM IP phones, which feature requires PoE Class 2?
A. The JBM24/JEM24 button module
B. The color display
C. The J100 wireless module
D. The built-in volume boost
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
You are working with a customer to migrate them to an Avaya Midsize solution with IP OfficeTM. They have nine
existing analog trunks that each cost $40 per month. You want to determine If It would be cost effective to go to digital
trunking using a T1/E1 at a cost of $400 per month. Although the analog monthly line charges are less, what else would
need to be taken Into consideration to look at the total cost difference?
A. Analog devices, such as a classic fax machine, attached to the IP Office require analog trunks.
B. Digital trunking requires an SBCE for security.
C. The cost for nine analog trunk ports versus a single digital trunk port.
D. Digital trunking needs VCM channels and analog trunks do not? Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 13
With Avaya Equinox Meetings Online, what is the maximum number of live broadcast viewers for a Pro VMR version?
A. 500 viewers
B. 50 viewers
C. 25 viewers
D. 100 viewers
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
The Global administrator role is assigned to your user account. You have a user named Admin1.
You create an eDiscovery case named Case1.
You need to ensure that Admin1 can view the results of Case1.
What should you do first?
A. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, assign a role group to Admin1.
B. From the Microsoft 365 admin center, assign a role to Admin1.
C. From Security and Compliance admin center, assign a role group to Admin1.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/assign-ediscovery-permissions


QUESTION 2
Which role should you assign to User1?
A. Global administrator
B. User administrator
C. Privileged role administrator
D. Security administrator
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Your company has a main office and a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You need to enforce Microsoft Azure Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) by using conditional access for all users who
are NOT physically present in the office.
What should you include in the configuration?
A. a user risk policy
B. a sign-in risk policy
C. a named location in Azure Active Directory (Azure AD)
D. an Azure MFA Server
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/conditional-access/location-condition


QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a VPN server named
VPN1 that runs Windows Server 2016 and has the Remote Access server role installed.
You have a Microsoft Azure subscription.
You are deploying Azure Advanced Threat Protection (ATP)
You install an Azure ATP standalone sensor on a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
You need to integrate the VPN and Azure ATP.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

ms-500 exam questions-q4

 Correct Answer:

ms-500 exam questions-q4-2

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure-advanced-threat-protection/install-atp-step6-vpn


QUESTION 5
You need to create Group2.
What are two possible ways to create the group?
A. an Office 365 group in the Microsoft 365 admin center
B. a mail-enabled security group in the Microsoft 365 admin center
C. a security group in the Microsoft 365 admin center
D. a distribution list in the Microsoft 365 admin center
E. a security group in the Azure AD admin center
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 6
You have a Microsoft 365 Enterprise E5 subscription.
You use Windows Defender Advanced Threat Protection (Windows Defender ATP).
You need to integrate Microsoft Office 365 Threat Intelligence and Windows Defender ATP.
Where should you configure the integration?
A. From the Microsoft 365 admin center, select Settings, and then select Services and add-ins.
B. From the Security and Compliance admin center, select Threat management, and then select Explorer.
C. From the Microsoft 365 admin center, select Reports, and then select Security and Compliance.
D. From the Security and Compliance admin center, select Threat management and then select Threat tracker.
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/integrate-office-365-ti-with-wdatp


QUESTION 7
You need to implement Windows Defender ATP to meet the security requirements. What should you do?
A. Configure port mirroring
B. Create the ForceDefenderPassiveMode registry setting
C. Download and install the Microsoft Monitoring Agent
D. Run WindowsDefenderATPOnboardingScript.cmd
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that includes a user named User1.
You have a conditional access policy that applies to Microsoft Exchange Online. The conditional access policy is
configured to use Conditional Access App Control.
You need to create a Microsoft Cloud App Security policy that blocks User1 from printing from Exchange Online.
Which type of Cloud App Security policy should you create?
A. an app permission policy
B. an activity policy
C. a Cloud Discovery anomaly detection policy
D. a session policy
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/cloud-app-security/session-policy-aad

QUESTION 9
You have the Microsoft conditions shown in the following table.

ms-500 exam questions-q9

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
Hot Area:

ms-500 exam questions-q9-2

QUESTION 10
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
A customer requests that you provide her with all documents that reference her by name.
You need to provide the customer with a copy of the content.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

ms-500 exam questions-q10

Correct Answer:

ms-500 exam questions-q10-2

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/gdpr-dsr-office365


QUESTION 11
You need to configure threat detection for Active Directory. The solution must meet the security requirements.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

ms-500 exam questions-q11

QUESTION 12
You need to recommend a solution to protect the sign-ins of Admin1 and Admin2. What should you include in the
recommendation?
A. a device compliance policy
B. an access review
C. a user risk policy
D. a sign-in risk policy
Correct Answer: C
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/identity-protection/howto-user-risk-policy


QUESTION 13
HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that uses a default name of litwareinc.com.
You configure the Sharing settings in Microsoft OneDrive as shown in the following exhibit.

ms-500 exam questions-q13

ms-500 exam questions-q13-2

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

ms-500 exam questions-q13-3 References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/onedrive/manage-sharing

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QUESTION 1
A server profile with the string “WEST15” in its name must have the string “WEST15” changed to “LXT14”. For example,
server profile “VMHOST-WEST15-01” would need to be changed to “VMHOST-LXT14-01”.
Using the Cisco Intersight REST API in a Python script, which two GET API requests are used to retrieve just the server
profile with the string “WEST15” in the name and the correct body for the API request to update the name? Assume the
variable “sp_name” contains the name of the retrieved server profile. (Choose two.)
A. GET https://intersight.com/api/v1/server/Profiles?$select=Nameand$filter=contains(Name, \\’WEST15\\’)
B. GET https://intersight.com/api/v1/server/Profiles?$select=Nameand$filter=Name in(\\’WEST15\\’)
C. BODY = { “Name”: sp_name.format(\\’WEST15\\’, \\’LXT14\\’) }
D. GET https://intersight.com/api/v1/server/Profiles?$select=Nameand$filter=startswith(Name, \\’WEST15\\’) E. BODY =
{ “Name”: sp_name.replace(\\’WEST15\\’,\\’LXT14\\’) }
Correct Answer: AE


QUESTION 2
How is an ACI class name composed?
A. :Method
B. ClassName:Method
C. Package:ClassName
D. MitName:Method
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the correct code snippets into the Python code to create a new application profile “WebApp” using the
ACI REST API. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:

300-635 exam questions-q3

Correct Answer:

300-635 exam questions-q3-2

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.

300-635 exam questions-q4

Which Ansible module is needed in line 8 to create a new VLAN 10 on the hosts defined in the “ucs” group?
A. vlan
B. ucs_vlans
C. vlans
D. nxos_vlans
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
A co-worker is using Cisco Intersight to determine the maximum available memory per server for their company\\’s data
center. Drag and drop the code to complete the Cisco Intersight API call that provides the desired results. Not all options
are used.
Select and Place:

300-635 exam questions-q5

QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
A file named myfunc.py has been edited. Drag and drop the steps from the left that ensure that this file is committed to
the local Git repository and verify its status into the correct order on the right. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:

300-635 exam questions-q6

Reference: https://readwrite.com/2013/10/02/github-for-beginners-part-2/?__cf_chl_jschl_tk__=e918efffa2ee8aeb3abb1b5617f66d8987836398-1586068682-0-AeVy3GS0NA9UH_pJsYAvz5KnFusbLBBmjSd0ZXoAUXHjnyZwLG_SCEEnegStx1xJaR0Y6a0Nbq13x0Q62s9J_soJUIEE2maoAUc7y3AsMTLw9XmylMX0lszsWwM0Poi5zYE26UF1vcFtFM8I_frNE9Nmrfjdb6YRQ8D4iURVdQ2QbphQr8qLJ_8JcZIaqfkIMgvXxUwqHI9i8pyW3yhne34kYZtye_pSC25ZPU3rQXXtkfOY0hRote1eJoT81LvqJ69hGUvIYv9DGMBwTTk24EwNaBbjCjPLj8lKUZaJZzaOfh_ADJ44fCDYs5YAJ11HOSBeS9jFQ89h2dOpajnYIcKae2Y8MsNtGI97g-XeMm-yG6I8bR0A392YT_1f8w


QUESTION 7
What are two differences between SNMP and model-driven telemetry? (Choose two.)
A. SNMP uses a continuous stream model.
B. SNMP uses a push model.
C. SNMP uses a pull model.
D. Model-driven telemetry uses a pull model.
E. Model-driven telemetry uses a push model.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 8
What is the network bootstrap program used by Cisco NX-OS iPXE?
A. NETBOOT
B. NX-OS iPXE
C. iPXE-POAP
D. Mini-OS
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 9
Which Ansible playbook fragment returns the fewest queried ACI endpoint groups?

300-635 exam questions-q9

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 10
Which Cisco UCS PowerTool commands initiate a Cisco UCS Manager connection?

300-635 exam questions-q10

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
When the Cisco bigmuddy-network-telemetry-collector from GitHub is used, which command displays only the message
headers?
A. –print
B. –all
C. –brief
D. –print-all
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 12
Which two capabilities apply to the DCNM API? (Choose two.)
A. DCNM provides an XML-based SOAP API.
B. DCNM requires a license to use the API.
C. Some features of DCNM must be configured through the GUI.
D. All API operations can be performed using the DCNM GUI.
E. DCNM provides a REST-based API.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 13
What are two main guiding principles of REST? (Choose two.)
A. cacheable
B. trackable
C. stateless
D. single-layer system
E. stateful
Correct Answer: AC

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QUESTION 1
What are the subordinate tasks of the Implement and Validate Assigned IA Control phase in the DIACAP process Each
correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Conduct activities related to the disposition of the system data and objects.
B. Combine validation results in DIACAP scorecard.
C. Conduct validation activities.
D. Execute and update IA implementation plan.
Correct Answer: BCD


QUESTION 2
In 2003, NIST developed a new Certification and Accreditation (CandA) guideline known as FIPS 199. What levels of
potential impact are defined by FIPS 199 Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. High
B. Medium
C. Low
D. Moderate
Correct Answer: ABC


QUESTION 3
Under which of the following CNSS policies, NIACAP is mandatory for all the systems that process USG classified
information
A. NSTISSP No. 11
B. NSTISSP No. 101
C. NSTISSP No. 7
D. NSTISSP No. 6
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which of the following CNSS policies describes the national policy on securing voice communications A. NSTISSP No. 6
B. NSTISSP No. 7
C. NSTISSP No. 101
D. NSTISSP No. 200
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
You work as a security engineer for BlueWell Inc. Which of the following documents will you use as a guide for the
security certification and accreditation of Federal Information Systems
A. NIST Special Publication 800-59
B. NIST Special Publication 800-37
C. NIST Special Publication 800-60
D. NIST Special Publication 800-53
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 6
Della works as a systems engineer for BlueWell Inc. She wants to convert system requirements into a comprehensive
function standard, and break the higher-level functions into lower-level functions. Which of the following processes will
Della use to accomplish the task
A. Risk analysis
B. Functional allocation
C. Functional analysis
D. Functional baseline
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which of the following requires all general support systems and major applications to be fully certified and accredited
before these systems and applications are put into production Each correct answer represents a part of the solution.
Choose all that apply.
A. Office of Management and Budget (OMB)
B. NIST
C. FISMA
D. FIPS
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 8
Which of the following protocols is built in the Web server and browser to encrypt data traveling over the Internet
A. UDP
B. SSL
C. IPSec
D. HTTP
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
You work as a systems engineer for BlueWell Inc. You are working on translating system requirements into detailed
function criteria. Which of the following diagrams will help you to show all of the function requirements and their
groupings in one diagram
A. Activity diagram
B. Functional flow block diagram (FFBD)
C. Functional hierarchy diagram
D. Timeline analysis diagram
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which of the following CNSS policies describes the national policy on use of cryptomaterial by activities operating in
high risk environments
A. CNSSP No. 14
B. NCSC No. 5
C. NSTISSP No. 6
D. NSTISSP No. 7
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following models uses a directed graph to specify the rights that a subject can transfer to an object or that
a subject can take from another subject?
A. Take-Grant Protection Model
B. Bell-LaPadula Model
C. Biba Integrity Model
D. Access Matrix
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
Which of the following is a variant with regard to Configuration Management?
A. A CI that has the same name as another CI but shares no relationship.
B. A CI that particularly refers to a hardware specification.
C. A CI that has the same essential functionality as another CI but a bit different in some small manner.
D. A CI that particularly refers to a software version.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
Which of the following analysis provides a foundation for measuring investment of time, money and human resources
required to achieve a particular outcome?
A. Vulnerability analysis
B. Cost-benefit analysis
C. Gap analysis
D. Requirement analysis
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
Which of the following is a process that identifies critical information to determine if friendly actions can be observed by
adversary intelligence systems?
A. IDS
B. OPSEC
C. HIDS
D. NIDS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which of the following statements is related with the second law of OPSEC?
A. If you are not protecting it (the critical and sensitive information), the adversary wins!
B. If you don\\’t know what to protect, how do you know you are protecting it?
C. If you don\\’t know about your security resources you could not protect your network.
D. If you don\\’t know the threat, how do you know what to protect?
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 6
You work as a Web Administrator for Perfect World Inc. The company is planning to host an E-commerce Web site. You
are required to design a security plan for it. Client computers with different operating systems will access the Web
server. How will you configure the Web server so that it is secure and only authenticated users are able to access it?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. Use encrypted authentication.
B. Use the SSL protocol.
C. Use the EAP protocol.
D. Use Basic authentication.
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 7
Which of the following statements best explains how encryption works on the Internet?
A. Encryption encodes information using specific algorithms with a string of numbers known as a key.
B. Encryption validates a username and password before sending information to the Web server.
C. Encryption allows authorized users to access Web sites that offer online shopping.
D. Encryption helps in transaction processing by e-commerce servers on the Internet.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
Your project has several risks that may cause serious financial impact should they happen. You have studied the risk
events and made some potential risk responses for the risk events but management wants you to do more. They\\’d like
for you to create some type of a chart that identified the risk probability and impact with a financial amount for each risk
event. What is the likely outcome of creating this type of chart?
A. Quantitative analysis
B. Contingency reserve
C. Risk response
D. Risk response plan
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
Which of the following response teams aims to foster cooperation and coordination in incident prevention, to prompt
rapid reaction to incidents, and to promote information sharing among members and the community at large?
A. CSIRT
B. CERT
C. FIRST
D. FedCIRC
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Eric is the project manager of the NQQ Project and has hired the ZAS Corporation to complete part of the project work
for Eric\\’s organization. Due to a change request the ZAS Corporation is no longer needed on the project even though
they have completed nearly all of the project work. Is Eric\\’s organization liable to pay the ZAS Corporation for the work
they have completed so far on the project?
A. Yes, the ZAS Corporation did not choose to terminate the contract work.
B. It depends on what the outcome of a lawsuit will determine.
C. It depends on what the termination clause of the contract stipulates.
D. No, the ZAS Corporation did not complete all of the work.
Correct Answer: C

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Role-based
Exam Code: MB-210
Exam Name: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Sales

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QUESTION 1
HOTSPOT
A company uses Dynamics 365 Sales to manage sales orders. You need to demonstrate the process of going from a
lead to an order. Which stage applies to each task? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Agrotestserviciotecnico mb-210 exam questions-q1

Correct Answer:

Agrotestserviciotecnico mb-210 exam questions-q1-2

QUESTION 2
A company plans to close early on the last day of the month for an employee celebration.
You need to configure Dynamics 365 to prevent scheduling of sales support resources for that day.
Which feature should you use?
A. Events
B. Business closure
C. Fiscal calendar
D. Time off request
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/customer-service/set-when-businessclosed-csh


QUESTION 3
HOTSPOT
You are a salesperson using Dynamics 365. You receive customer phone calls and manage leads.
You need to qualify leads and send phone calls to sales representatives.
How should you manage each of the following situations? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Agrotestserviciotecnico mb-210 exam questions-q3

Correct Answer:

Agrotestserviciotecnico mb-210 exam questions-q3-2

QUESTION 4
You need to implement dashboards. Which URL should you use?
A. https://bellowscollege.com.dynamics.com
B. http://bellowscollege.com.dynamics.com
C. https://crm.bellowscollege.dynamics.com
D. https://bellowscollege.dynamics.com
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
You need to determine the cause of the issue with desktop users and business cards. What is the cause of the issue?
A. The Al Builder Business Card control needs to be configured for the field on the form.
B. The field needs to be added to the form.
C. A business rule needs to be set up to show the field.
D. The users do not have the appropriate permissions.
E. Show image on the form is not selected in Form Properties.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You need to create a chart for the athletic director. What should you do?
A. Use purchaser, markup, and margin on the X-axis. Use amount of sales on the Y-axis.
B. Use the ticket type as the X-axis. Use amount of sales on the Y-axis
C. Use the ticket type on the X-axis. Use margins multiplied by cost on Y-axis
D. Use discount price on the X-axis. Use the number of tickets for groups on the Y-axis.
Correct Answer: B
The school\\’s athletic director needs a fiscal year report that includes specific formatting based on a defined template.
The report must contain a chart that displays the type of ticket purchaser (alumni, non-alumni, and student).


QUESTION 7
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the
review screen.
You are a Dynamics 365 for Sales system customizer.
You need to set up LinkedIn Sales Navigator Lead (member profile) on the Lead form.
Solution: Use Dynamics 365 AI for Sales.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/linkedin/add-sales-navigator-controlsforms

QUESTION 8
HOTSPOT
You send a quote to a client. The client calls and negotiates a better price.
You need to send a revised quote to the client.
What is required to modify the quote? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Agrotestserviciotecnico mb-210 exam questions-q8

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Agrotestserviciotecnico mb-210 exam questions-q8-2

QUESTION 9
You need to identify new customer pending sales. What should you do?
A. Create status reasons in the solution and associate them with Open status
B. Add statuses for all the pending sales stages
C. Set all new leads to a default status of Qualified
D. Configure the solution to automatically convert leads to opportunities
Correct Answer: A
To support reporting, pending new customer sales will go through a verification process using the stages New, Pending
Approval, Approved.


QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the
review screen.
A customer recently visited one of your retail outlets. You created an opportunity for the customer for a large purchase.
The customer is now ready to complete the purchase.
You need to create a quote from the opportunity.
Solution: Qualify the opportunity.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/developer/convert-opportunity-quotesales-order-invoice

QUESTION 11
DRAG DROP
You are configuring Dynamics 365 for Sales. Your organization has a five-stage sales process comprised of leads,
opportunities, client validation, quotes, and orders.
You need to ensure that salespeople can move through the sales process and view progress.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Agrotestserviciotecnico mb-210 exam questions-q11

Correct Answer:

Agrotestserviciotecnico mb-210 exam questions-q11-2

QUESTION 12
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the
review screen.
You are a Dynamics 365 Sales system administrator.
The sales team wants to use automated conversation starters.
You need to ensure that the controls are available to developers.
Solution: Create a subscription to Microsoft Relationship Sales and enable JavaScript and pop-up blockers.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
HOTSPOT
You have a dashboard that shows the number of completed calls and cancelled calls in a chart. Sales Representatives
mark completed calls by using one of the following values: Wrong Number, Left Message, or Connected.
You need to update the dashboard to display wrong phone numbers.
How should you make the modification? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Agrotestserviciotecnico mb-210 exam questions-q13

Correct Answer:

Agrotestserviciotecnico mb-210 exam questions-q13-2

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QUESTION 1
A company wants to send emails from a new domain.
Where should an Admin navigate to in Pardot to add the new domain?
A. Marketing | System Emails
B. Marketing | Email Sending Domains
C. Admin | Security
D. Admin | Domain Management
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
Which three variable tags can be used on layout templates for landing pages? (Choose three answers.)
A. %%description%%
B. %%name%%
C. %%tittle%%
D. %%form%%
E. %%content%%
Correct Answer: ACE


QUESTION 3
Which three user role security limits can be added to an individual user account? (Choose three answers.)
A. Max number of emails the user can send.
B. Max number of prospects the user can manually delete.
C. Max number of records a user can import.
D. Max number of prospects the user can manually create.
E. Max number of prospects the user can export.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 4
What is the process to add a prospect who visits a pricing page to a list?
A. Create a page action
B. Create a segmentation rule
C. Use a Tag
D. Create an automation rule
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
How does an Administrator grant a Pardot employee access to their account?
A. By calling Pardot Support.
B. By emailing Pardot Support.
C. By contacting Pardot Success Specialist
D. By hovering over the person icon and selecting Grant Account Access.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 6
Which Pardot function should be used to track prospect engagement on a banner ad on a third-party site?
A. Page action
B. Custom redirect
C. Campaign tracking code
D. Landing page
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
An Administrator wants to have a thank you email sent after the form on the “Request a Demo” landing page is
submitted.
Where can this be configured to ensure that every time the landing page is completed, the email is sent?
A. Configure an autoresponder email to send as a completion action when the `Request a Demo” landing page has
been submitted.
B. Configure an automation rule to send the email when “Request a Demo” form has been successfully completed.
C. Configure a segmentation rule to send the email when “Request a Demo” landing page has been successfully
completed.
D. Configure an autoresponder email to send as a completion action when the “Request a Demo” form has been
submitted.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
Which Salesforce field type is unsupported for syncing with Pardot?
A. Lookup
B. Picklist
C. Number
D. Formula
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 9
What user role must a Pardot user have in order to verify the Salesforce connector?
A. Sales manager
B. Sales
C. Marketing
D. Administrator
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
A Marketing Manager meets a new customer at an event. How can they create that new customer as a prospect in
Pardot?
A. Create a new lead in Salesforce without an email address.
B. Add the prospect\\’s first name and last name to a CSV file and import that into Pardot.
C. Take a picture of their business card and upload it into Pardot.
D. Have the prospect submit a form with their name and email address.
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 11
A custom Prospect field in Pardot must have what mapped to it in order to sync with Salesforce?
A. A Salesforce field name
B. A dropdown list
C. A field ID
D. A text type field
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
What is the difference between a dynamic list and a static list?
A. Dynamic list membership CANNOT be manually updated but static list membership can be manually updated.
B. Dynamic lists are retroactive while static lists CANNOT be retroactive.
C. Dynamic list membership can be manually updated but static list membership CANNOT be manually updated.
D. An action can be added to a dynamic list that will trigger when a prospect is added but an action CANNOT be added
to a static list to trigger when a prospect is added.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Viewing a pricing page is considered a valuable buying signal. LenoxSoft would like to be able to report on and segment
prospects who have visited the pricing page. Which automation tool would best achieve this?
A. Create a special campaign to track pricing page views.
B. Create a Page Action set to Tag prospects as having viewing it and add them to a list.
C. Create a Form with a Completion Action to send a pricing sheet.
D. Create a Dynamic List based on page view to segment automatically.
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
A developer wants to use all of the functionality provided by the standard controller for an object, but needs to override
the Save standard action in a controller extension. Which two are required in the controller extension class?
A. Create a method named Save with a return data type of PageReference.
B. Create a method that references this.superSave()
C. Define the class with a constructor that takes an instance of StandardController as a parameter.
D. Define the class with a constructor that creates a new instance of the StandardController class.
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 2
What should be used to create scratch orgs?
A. Sandbox refresh
B. Salesforce CLI
C. Developer Console
D. Workbench
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
A developer is asked to create a custom visualforce page that will be used as a dashboard component. Which three are
valid controller options for this page? Choose 3 answers
A. Use a custom controller
B. Use a custom controller with extensions
C. Use a standard controller with extensions
D. Do not specify a controller
E. Use a standard controller
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 4
What is a capability of the tag that is used for loading external Javascript libraries in Lightning Component? (Choose three.)
A. Loading files from Documents.
B. One-time loading for duplicate scripts.
C. Specifying loading order.
D. Loading scripts in parallel.
E. Loading externally hosted scripts.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 5
A platform developer needs to implement a declarative solution that will display the most recent closed won date for all
opportunity records associated with an account. Which field is required to achieve this declaratively?
A. Roll-up summary field on the opportunity object
B. Cross-object formula field on the account object
C. Roll-up summary field on the account object
D. Cross-object formula field on the opportunity object
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
What declarative method helps ensure quality data? Choose 3 answers
A. Page layouts
B. Lookup filters
C. Exception handling
D. Workflow alerts
E. Validation rules
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 7
Where are two locations a developer can look to find information about the status of asynchronous or future cals?
Choose 2 answers
A. Apex Flex Queue (Missed)
B. Apex Jobs (Missed)
C. Paused Flow Interviews component
D. Time-Based Workflow Monitor
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8
What is a capability of the Developer Console?
A. Execute Anonymous Apex code, Create/Edit code, view Debug Logs.
B. Execute Anonymous Apex code, Run REST API, create/Edit code.
C. Execute Anonymous Apex code, Create/Edit code, Deploy code changes.
D. Execute Anonymous Apex code, Run REST API, deploy code changes.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which three web technologies can be integrated into a Visualforce page? Choose 3 answares
A. HTML (Missed)
B. Java
C. PHP
D. CSS (Missed)
E. JavaScript (Missed)
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 10
The Review__c object has a lookup relationship up to the Job_Application__c object. The Job_Application__c object
has a master-detail relationship up the Position__c object. The relationship field names are based on the auto-populated
defaults.
What is the recommended way to display field data from the related Review__c records on a Visualforce page for a
single Position__c record?
A. Utilize the Standard Controller for position__c and a Controller Extension to query for Review__c data.
B. Utilize the Standard Controller for Position__c and cross-object Formula fields on the job_Application__c object to
display Review__c data.
C. Utilize the Standard Controller for Position__c and cross-object Formula fields on the Review__c object to display
Review__c data.
D. Utilize the Standard Controller for position__c and expression syntax in the page to display related Review__c data
through the job_Application__c object
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which two condition cause workflow rules to fire? Choose 2 answers
A. Changing territory assignments of accounts and opportunities
B. Updating record using bulk API
C. Converting leads to person account
D. An Apex batch process that changes field values
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 12
A developer needs to create a Visualforce page that will override the standard Account edit button. The page will be
used to validate the account\\’s address using a SOQL query. The page will also allow the user to make edits to the
address. Where would the developer write the Account address verification logic?
A. In a Standard Extension.
B. In a Standard Controller.
C. In a Custom Controller.
D. In a Controller Extension.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which type of controller should a developer use to include a list of related records for a Custom Object record on a
Visualforce page without needing additional test coverage?
A. Controller Extension
B. Custom Controller
C. Standard Controller
D. List Controller
Correct Answer: C

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SASInstitute Statistical Business Analyst A00-240 Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
A non-contributing predictor variable (Pr > |t| =0.658) is added to an existing multiple linear regression model.
What will be the result?
A. An increase in R-Square
B. A decrease in R-Square
C. A decrease in Mean Square Error
D. No change in R-Square
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
There are missing values in the input variables for a regression application.
Which SAS procedure provides a viable solution?
A. GLM
B. VARCLUS
C. STDI2E
D. CLUSTER
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
When mean imputation is performed on data after the data is partitioned for honest assessment, what is the most
appropriate method for handling the mean imputation?
A. The sample means from the validation data set are applied to the training and test data sets.
B. The sample means from the training data set are applied to the validation and test data sets.
C. The sample means from the test data set are applied to the training and validation data sets.
D. The sample means from each partition of the data are applied to their own partition.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
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A non-contributing predictor variable (Pr > |t| = 0.658) is removed from an existing multiple linear regression model.
What will be the result?
A. An increase in R-Square
B. A decrease in R-Square
C. A decrease in Mean Square Error
D. No change in R-Square
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
An analyst generates a model using the LOGISTIC procedure. They are now interested in getting the sensitivity and
specificity statistics on a validation data set for a variety of cutoff values. Which statement and option combination will
generate these statistics?
A. Score data=valid1 out=roc;
B. Score data=valid1 outroc=roc;
C. mode1 resp(event= \\’1\\’) = gender region/outroc=roc;
D. mode1 resp(event”1″) = gender region/ out=roc;
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
This question will ask you to provide missing code segments.
A logistic regression model was fit on a data set where 40% of the outcomes were events (TARGET=1) and 60% were
non-events (TARGET=0). The analyst knows that the population where the model will be deployed has 5% events and
95% non-events. The analyst also knows that the company\\’s profit margin for correctly targeted events is nine times
higher than the company\\’s loss for incorrectly targeted non-event.
Given the following SAS program:

Agrotestserviciotecnico A00-240 exam questions-q6

What X and Y values should be added to the program to correctly score the data?
A. X=40, Y=10
B. X=.05, Y=10
C. X=.05, Y=.40
D. X=.10, Y=05
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
In partitioning data for model assessment, which sampling methods are acceptable? (Choose two.)
A. Simple random sampling without replacement
B. Simple random sampling with replacement
C. Stratified random sampling without replacement
D. Sequential random sampling with replacement
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 8
Refer to the following exhibit:

Agrotestserviciotecnico A00-240 exam questions-q8

What is a correct interpretation of this graph?
A. The association between the continuous predictor and the binary response is quadratic.
B. The association between the continuous predictor and the log-odds is quadratic.
C. The association between the continuous predictor and the continuous response is quadratic.
D. The association between the binary predictor and the log-odds is quadratic.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit:

Agrotestserviciotecnico A00-240 exam questions-q9

SAS output from the RSQUARE selection method, within the REG procedure, is shown. The top two models in each
subset are given. Based on the exhibit, which statement is true?
A. The AIC champion model is more parsimonious than the SBC champion.
B. The SBC champion model is more parsimonious than the AIC champion.
C. The R-Square champion model is the most parsimonious.
D. Adjusted R-Square and R-Square agree on the champion model.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which SAS program will divide the original data set into 60% training and 40% validation data sets, stratified by county?

Agrotestserviciotecnico A00-240 exam questions-q10

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit:

Agrotestserviciotecnico A00-240 exam questions-q11

The plots represent two models, A and B, being fit to the same two data sets, training and validation.
Model A is 90.5% accurate at distinguishing blue from red on the training data and 75.5% accurate at doing the same on
validation data. Model B is 83% accurate at distinguishing blue from red on the training data and 78.3% accurate at
doing the same on the validation data.
Which of the two models should be selected and why?
A. Model A. It is more complex with a higher accuracy than model B on training data.
B. Model A. It performs better on the boundary for the training data.
C. Model B. It is more complex with a higher accuracy than model A on validation data.
D. Model B. It is simpler with a higher accuracy than model A on validation data.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
The Model SS in a multiple linear regression model is equal to:
A. the total SS- MSE
B. the sum of Type I SS of all model terms
C. the sum of Type II SS of all model terms
D. the sum of SSE and MSE
Correct Answer: B
Reference: http://core.ecu.edu/psyc/wuenschk/SAS/SS1234.pdf

QUESTION 13
One common approach for predicting rare events in the LOGISTIC procedure is to build a model that disproportionately
over-re presents those cases with an event occurring (e.g. a 50-50 event/non-event split). What problem does this
present?
A. All parameter estimates are biased.
B. Only the intercept estimate is biased.
C. Only the non-intercept parameter estimates are biased.
D. Sensitivity estimates are biased.
Correct Answer: B

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