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QUESTION 1
A server profile with the string “WEST15” in its name must have the string “WEST15” changed to “LXT14”. For example,
server profile “VMHOST-WEST15-01” would need to be changed to “VMHOST-LXT14-01”.
Using the Cisco Intersight REST API in a Python script, which two GET API requests are used to retrieve just the server
profile with the string “WEST15” in the name and the correct body for the API request to update the name? Assume the
variable “sp_name” contains the name of the retrieved server profile. (Choose two.)
A. GET https://intersight.com/api/v1/server/Profiles?$select=Nameand$filter=contains(Name, \\’WEST15\\’)
B. GET https://intersight.com/api/v1/server/Profiles?$select=Nameand$filter=Name in(\\’WEST15\\’)
C. BODY = { “Name”: sp_name.format(\\’WEST15\\’, \\’LXT14\\’) }
D. GET https://intersight.com/api/v1/server/Profiles?$select=Nameand$filter=startswith(Name, \\’WEST15\\’) E. BODY =
{ “Name”: sp_name.replace(\\’WEST15\\’,\\’LXT14\\’) }
Correct Answer: AE


QUESTION 2
How is an ACI class name composed?
A. :Method
B. ClassName:Method
C. Package:ClassName
D. MitName:Method
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the correct code snippets into the Python code to create a new application profile “WebApp” using the
ACI REST API. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:

300-635 exam questions-q3

Correct Answer:

300-635 exam questions-q3-2

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.

300-635 exam questions-q4

Which Ansible module is needed in line 8 to create a new VLAN 10 on the hosts defined in the “ucs” group?
A. vlan
B. ucs_vlans
C. vlans
D. nxos_vlans
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
A co-worker is using Cisco Intersight to determine the maximum available memory per server for their company\\’s data
center. Drag and drop the code to complete the Cisco Intersight API call that provides the desired results. Not all options
are used.
Select and Place:

300-635 exam questions-q5

QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
A file named myfunc.py has been edited. Drag and drop the steps from the left that ensure that this file is committed to
the local Git repository and verify its status into the correct order on the right. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:

300-635 exam questions-q6

Reference: https://readwrite.com/2013/10/02/github-for-beginners-part-2/?__cf_chl_jschl_tk__=e918efffa2ee8aeb3abb1b5617f66d8987836398-1586068682-0-AeVy3GS0NA9UH_pJsYAvz5KnFusbLBBmjSd0ZXoAUXHjnyZwLG_SCEEnegStx1xJaR0Y6a0Nbq13x0Q62s9J_soJUIEE2maoAUc7y3AsMTLw9XmylMX0lszsWwM0Poi5zYE26UF1vcFtFM8I_frNE9Nmrfjdb6YRQ8D4iURVdQ2QbphQr8qLJ_8JcZIaqfkIMgvXxUwqHI9i8pyW3yhne34kYZtye_pSC25ZPU3rQXXtkfOY0hRote1eJoT81LvqJ69hGUvIYv9DGMBwTTk24EwNaBbjCjPLj8lKUZaJZzaOfh_ADJ44fCDYs5YAJ11HOSBeS9jFQ89h2dOpajnYIcKae2Y8MsNtGI97g-XeMm-yG6I8bR0A392YT_1f8w


QUESTION 7
What are two differences between SNMP and model-driven telemetry? (Choose two.)
A. SNMP uses a continuous stream model.
B. SNMP uses a push model.
C. SNMP uses a pull model.
D. Model-driven telemetry uses a pull model.
E. Model-driven telemetry uses a push model.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 8
What is the network bootstrap program used by Cisco NX-OS iPXE?
A. NETBOOT
B. NX-OS iPXE
C. iPXE-POAP
D. Mini-OS
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 9
Which Ansible playbook fragment returns the fewest queried ACI endpoint groups?

300-635 exam questions-q9

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 10
Which Cisco UCS PowerTool commands initiate a Cisco UCS Manager connection?

300-635 exam questions-q10

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
When the Cisco bigmuddy-network-telemetry-collector from GitHub is used, which command displays only the message
headers?
A. –print
B. –all
C. –brief
D. –print-all
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 12
Which two capabilities apply to the DCNM API? (Choose two.)
A. DCNM provides an XML-based SOAP API.
B. DCNM requires a license to use the API.
C. Some features of DCNM must be configured through the GUI.
D. All API operations can be performed using the DCNM GUI.
E. DCNM provides a REST-based API.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 13
What are two main guiding principles of REST? (Choose two.)
A. cacheable
B. trackable
C. stateless
D. single-layer system
E. stateful
Correct Answer: AC

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Cisco exam certification information

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Cisco ICND2 200-105 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which mode is compatible with Trunk, Access, and desirable ports?
A. Trunk Ports
B. Access Ports
C. Dynamic Auto
D. Dynamic Desirable
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the configuration of the switch interface are correct? (Choose two.)pass4itsure 200-105 exam question q2

A. The switchport belongs only to VLAN 2.
B. By default, all switch ports are members of VLAN 1005.
C. Interface fa0/0 will be in both VLAN 1 (by default) and VLAN 2.
D. The exhibit shows interface fa0/0 to be dynamically mapped to VLAN 2.
E. A network host can be connected to this interface.
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 3
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the trunking terms from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.
Select and Place:pass4itsure 200-105 exam question q3

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 200-105 exam question q3-1

 

QUESTION 4
Which three statements about the ACEs that are matched by a Cisco APIC-EM ACL path are true? (Choose three.)
A. If the trace fails to find a matching ACE in an ACL, it is reported as implicitly permitted.
B. If an optional criterion is omitted from the trace, the results include all possible ACE matches.
C. If the trace fails to find a matching ACE in an ACL, it is reported as implicitly denied.
D. ACEs are reported only if they match.
E. All ACEs found by the trace are reported, including those that fail to match.
F. If an optional criterion is omitted from the trace, the results are reported as if the default value was specified.
Correct Answer: BCD
The following rules effect the ACL path trace results:
Only matching ACEs are reported.
If you leave out the protocol, source port, or destination port when defining a path trace, the results include ACE
matches for all possible values for these fields.
If no matching ACEs exists in the ACL, the flow is reported to be implicitly denied
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/cloud-systems-management/application-policy-infrastructure-controller-enterprise-module/1-2-x/config-guide/b_apic-em_config_guide_v_1-2-x/b_apic-em_config_guide_v_1-2x_chapter_01000.pdf page 24

 

QUESTION 5
Which IPsec security protocol should be used when confidentiality is required?
A. MD5
B. PSK
C. AH
D. ESP
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
In which two models can control-plane functionality be implemented? (Choose two.)
A. Dispersed
B. Distributed
C. Fragmented
D. Centralized
E. Allocated
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 7
For which two reasons do you implement a PAgP EtherChannel? (Choose two.)
A. to dynamically assign VLANs to a trunk port
B. to increase bandwidth
C. to provide redundancy
D. to exchange VLAN information
E. to dynamically determine whether a port is an access port or trunk port
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 8
In which two ways can you isolate the location of a connectivity issue between two devices on your network? (Choose
two.)
A. Test whether the next hop from the source can reach the destination and work toward the destination.
B. Send an extended ping from the destination to the source.
C. Execute a traceroute from the destination and work toward the source to locate the problematic hop.
D. Send an extended ping from the source to the destination.
E. Execute a traceroute from the source to the destination to locate the problematic hop.
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 9
Which two statements identify differences between single-homed and dual-homed WAN topologies? (Choose two.)
A. Dual-homed topologies provide greater redundancy than single-homed topologies
B. Only dual-homed connections require dynamic routing to the ISP
C. Single-homed topologies are more costly to an enterprise than dual-homed topologies
D. Only dual-homed connections are connected to the same ISP
E. Single-homed topologies are more appropriate for small-business networks than dual-homed topologies
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 10
Which two statements about interior gateway routing protocols are true? (Choose two.)
A. They may use the Dijkstra algorithm.
B. They can be used to connect to another AS across the Internet as a virtual instance.
C. They may use the Bellman-Ford algorithm.
D. They cannot be used when two devices are connected through a firewall.
E. They can be used to connect to the Internet backbone.
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 11
What are the two default metrics used by EIGRP for route selection? (Choose two.)
A. Bandwidth
B. Delay
C. Reliability
D. Load
E. MTU
Correct Answer: AB
EIGRP adds together weighted values of different network link characteristics in order to calculate a metric for
evaluating path selection.
These characteristics include:
Delay (measured in 10s of microseconds)
Bandwidth (measured in kilobytes per second)
Reliability (in numbers ranging from 1 to 255; 255 being the most reliable) Load (in numbers ranging from 1 to 255; 255
being saturated) Various constants (K 1 through K 5) are able to be set by a user to produce varying routing behaviors.
However, by default, only delay and bandwidth are used in the weighted formula to produce a single 32bit metric:pass4itsure 200-105 exam question q11

Note: Default K values are: K1 = K3 = 1 and K2 = K4 = K5 = 0. When K5 is equal to 0 then [K5/( K4 + reliability)] is
defined to be 1 Use of the default constants effectively reduces the formula above to:
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/ios-nx-os-software/enhanced-interior-gateway-routing-protocol-eigrp/whitepaper_C11-720525.html


QUESTION 12
Which configuration item is the default username for PPP local authentication?
A. the router MAC address
B. the router hostname
C. cisco
D. The router serial number
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
The network administrator of the Oregon router adds the following command to the router configuration: ip route
192.168.12.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.12.1. What are the results of adding this command? (Choose two.)pass4itsure 200-105 exam question q13

A. The command establishes a static route.
B. The command invokes a dynamic routing protocol for 192.168.12.0.
C. Traffic for network 192.168.12.0 is forwarded to 172.16.12.1.
D. Traffic for all networks is forwarded to 172.16.12.1.
E. This route is automatically propagated throughout the entire network.
F. Traffic for network 172.16.12.0 is forwarded to the 192.168.12.0 network.
Correct Answer: AC

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810-440 DTBAA – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/dtbaa.html

Cisco Business Architecture Analyst 810-440 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which question provides the best information to use to define customer success factors?
A. What services do you need?
B. Which Cisco products best fit your goals?
C. What tools are you looking for, to better measure your ROI?
D. What are your business objectives for this project/initiative?
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
Which is a critical first step when thinking about how to communicate technical content to a senior business manager?
A. Identify a person on her staff who can explain details.
B. Listen to the customer to understand her KPIs.
C. Plan out your message to explain potential options.
D. Draft a high level message using language pulled from the top IT vendors.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
Which type of organizational goals do key performance indicators measure?
A. tactical
B. financial
C. strategic
D. technological
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
Which option is a structured process to understand business landscape and context?
A. business model canvas
B. business outcomes canvas
C. business model outcomes
D. business canvas approach
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Which option is a benefit of Cisco enablement resources?
A. the ability to create personalized “briefcases” of content
B. a single place to find business proposals and instructor-led training
C. access to kits of bundled content, including IOS images and more
D. it enhances the selling process for seller and the customer
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
Which three options are additional costs arising from a subscription model and should be factored into the total cost of
ownership of IT as a Service?
A. auditing and control
B. cost of hardware and software
C. software asset and managed
D. cost of accounting and tracking
E. quality assurance management
F. chargeback and show back
Correct Answer: ACD

 

QUESTION 7
Which resource can a sales person incorporate into the business outcome story?
A. Include a detailed business strategic plan
B. Describe the project definition.
C. Explain technology innovations.
D. Identify the customers\\’ care-abouts.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
Which two options comprise information you need to achieve successful outcome-based sales? (Choose two.)
A. How stakeholders receive information and what information they want to receive.
B. What information is communicated to stakeholders in a timely fashion.
C. The stakeholder influencers, decision makers, and participating individuals throughout the process.
D. The degree of affinity stakeholders have related to risk.
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 9
There are approximately nineteen industry verticals. Which five are relevant to Cisco? (Choose five.)
A. Connected Learning
B. Connected Buildings
C. Connected Public Safety
D. Health Care
E. Disaster Management
F. Connected City
G. Connected Utilities
H. Connected Factory
Correct Answer: CDFGH


QUESTION 10
On which two business maturity levels do Cisco Business Architects operate?
A. Business Engagement
B. Technology Solutions
C. Business Transformation
D. Technology Specific
E. Business Solutions
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 11
Which two functions of the technology specialists in a Cisco Business Architecture engagement are true? (Choose
two.)
A. Own the customer relationship.
B. Focus on specific technical solutions.
C. Define business capabilities.
D. Support the engagement that is led by the business architect.
E. Identify customer business priorities.
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 12
Which three options are customer motivators? (Choose three.)
A. Achievable Business plan.
B. Shared risks with the vendor.
C. Increased services and solutions.
D. Realizable outcomes.
E. Simplify IT complexity.
Correct Answer: BDE

 

QUESTION 13
Which solution enables business outcomes in the healthcare industry?
A. Multilayer Switching
B. Medianet
C. Collaboration
D. Advanced Routing
Correct Answer: B

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 210-451 Dumps Exam Q&As(19-47)

QUESTION 19
Which three options are the advantages of VXLAN? (Choose three.)
A. Increase of VLAN address space
B. Support multi-tenancy
C. Connectivity across disparate virtual data centers
D. Uses Spanning Tree Protocol for loop prevention
E. Configure Portgroup Virtual port ID
F. Configure Portgroup Load Based Teaming
210-451 exam Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 20
Which platform is ideally used to orchestrate a FlexPod from a single management platform?
A. Cisco UCS Manager
B. Cisco UCS Director
C. Cisco Prime Cloud Automation Manager
D. Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure Manager
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Which protocol does Cisco Nexus 1000V use to provide flow redirection for vService interaction?
A. OpFlex
B. vPath
C. FlexPath
D. VLAN bridging
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Which /etc/exports line will allow you to enable read-only access from the NFS client 192.168.1.100?
A. /images 192.168.1.100 (ro,async)
B. /images 192.168.1.100 (755,async)
C. /images 192.168.1.1/24 (755,no_root_squash,async)
D. /images 192.168.1.1/27 (ro,async)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
What are the key features of UCS?
A. 10 Gigabit unified network fabric, virtualization optimization, unified management, service profiles, flexible IO options
B. Gigabit network , virtualization optimization, unified management, service profiles, flexible IO options
C. 10 Gigabit unified network fabric, virtualization hardware, unified management, service profiles, performance IO options
D. 10 Gigabit unified network fabric, virtualization optimization, unified management, service profiles, performance IO options
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Which of these are hypervisors typically utilized in a modern data center?
A. VMware, HyperV, Linux
B. ESXi, HyperV, Linux
C. ESXi, HyperV, KVM
D. VMware, HyperV, KVM
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
In an Openstack Cloud deployment which has a fibre channel SAN providing the block storage, which two options are valid fibre channel zone member types? (Choose two.)
A. FCID
B. DomainID
C. WWPN
D. OpenStack Volume ID
210-451 vce Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 26
Which description of Cisco vPath is true?
A. a protocol that provides end-to-end path assurance for Cloud-based systems
B. an embedded intelligence in Cisco VEM that provides abstracted control and forward plane functionality
C. a service that provides forwarding plane abstraction for inline redirection of traffic for vServices
D. a vService that allows for security policy enforcement through transparent bridging
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Which three options are considered Cloud deployment models? (Choose three.)
A. Public Cloud
B. Hybrid Cloud
C. Open Cloud
D. Private Cloud
E. Stack Cloud
F. Distributed Cloud
210-451 exam Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 28
Which two descriptions of VXLAN are true? (Choose two.)
A. The VXLAN Identifier space is 24 bits.
B. VXLAN uses the Internet Protocol as the transport medium.
C. VXLAN adds 24 bytes of overhead to each packet.
D. VXLAN is primarily designed for small environments.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 29
Which of the following two storage technologies would require that its\’ block device be attached to an instance before you can perform any filesystem commands? (Choose two.)
A. SCSI LUN
B. Cinder Volume
C. NFS Filesystem Meta-Volume
D. Direct Object Block Device
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 30
Which option is the correct steps to regenerate a UCS B-Series SSL certificate?
A. Open an SSH session to the CIMC IP # scope security # scope keyring default # set regenerate yes # commit-buffer
B. Open an SSH session to the CIMC IP # scope certificate # set regenerate yes # commit-buffer
C. Open an SSH session to the CIMC IP # scope security # scope certificate # set regenerate yes # commit-buffer
D. Using the UCSM GUI Navigate to the Admin tab Expand ALL andgt; Key Management Right-click Key Management and choose regenerate certificate Click OK
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 31
Which option is the correct steps to regenerate a UCS B-Series SSL certificate?
A. Open an SSH session to the CIMC IP # scope security # scope keyring default # set regenerate yes # commit-buffer
B. Open an SSH session to the CIMC IP # scope certificate # set regenerate yes # commit-buffer
C. Open an SSH session to the CIMC IP # scope security # scope certificate # set regenerate yes # commit buffer
D. Using the UCSM GUI Navigate to the Admin tab Expand ALL andgt; Key Management Right-click Key Management and choose regenerate certificate Click OK
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
In an Openstack Cloud deployment which has a fibre channel SAN providing the block storage, which two options are valid fibre channel zone member types? (Choose two.)
A. FCID
B. DomainID
C. WWPN
D. OpenStack Volume ID
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 33
The Cisco InterCloud Fabric Director provides what functionality?
A. It is the single point of management and consumption for hybrid Cloud solutions.
B. It is the single point of management and consumption for public Cloud solutions.
C. It is the single point of management and consumption for private Cloud solutions.
D. It is a plugin of a Virtual Machine Manager to provide management and configuration for hybrid Cloud solutions.
210-451 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 34
Which statement about the differences between vSwitch and DVS is true?
A. vSwitch supports Spanning Tree Protocol.
B. DVS supports Spanning Tree Protocol.
C. vSwitch supports private VLAN.
D. DVS supports private VLAN.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 35
Which /etc/exports line will allow you to enable read-only access from the NFS client 192.168.1.100?
A. /images 192.168.1.100 (ro,async)
B. /images 192.168.1.100 (755,async)
C. /images 192.168.1.1/24 (755,no_root_squash,async)
D. /images 192.168.1.1/27 (ro,async)
210-451 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 36
Which Cloud service model is appropriate for a physical data center move to the Cloud?
A. Infrastructure as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Compute as a Service
D. Software as a Service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
Which three options are the advantages of VXLAN? (Choose three.)
A. Increase of VLAN address space
B. Support multi-tenancy
C. Connectivity across disparate virtual data centers
D. Uses Spanning Tree Protocol for loop prevention
E. Configure Portgroup Virtual port ID
F. Configure Portgroup Load Based Teaming
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 38
Which description of RAID6 is true?
A. block-level striping of data with double distributed parity
B. drive-level striping of data with double distributed parity
C. block-level striping of data with single distributed parity
D. block-level mirroring of data with double distributed parity
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 39
Which technology focuses on Layer 2 distributed data centers?
A. FabricPath
B. Adapter FEX
C. LISP
D. OTV
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 40
VMware\’s ESXi Hypervisor is a Type-1 hypervisor. What does this mean?
A. It should be placed first in your data center.
B. It runs a conventional operating system and abstracts the guest operating system from its host system.
C. It should only be run in class 1 data centers with high availability.
D. It runs directly on the host hardware to control and manage the guest operating systems.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 41
Which type of zoning is represented? zone name zone1 vsan 10 member pwwn 20:00:00:55:a5:00:00:04 member pwwn 50:00:d3:10:00:18:e1:05 member pwwn 50:00:d3:10:00:18:e1:06
A. Single Initiator Multi Target
B. Multi Initiator Single Target
C. Single Target Single Initiator
D. Multi Initiator Multi Target
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 42
Which option describes what the use of no_root_squash does in an NFS environment?
A. It causes the NFS share to be mounted by a non-root user and is required for hypervisors that utilize RBAC for users.
B. It allows a NFS share to be mounted and written to as the root user by the hypervisor.
C. It allows a NFS share to be mounted by root, but all subsequent writes are as a non-root user.
D. It allows a NFS share to be mounted by a non-root user and all subsequent writes are as a non-root user.
210-451 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 43
Which platform is ideally used to orchestrate a FlexPod from a single management platform?
A. Cisco UCS Manager
B. Cisco UCS Director
C. Cisco Prime Cloud Automation Manager
D. Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure Manager
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 44
Which three options are the advantages of VXLAN? (Choose three.)
A. Increase of VLAN address space
B. Support multi-tenancy
C. Connectivity across disparate virtual data centers
D. Uses Spanning Tree Protocol for loop prevention
E. Configure Portgroup Virtual port ID
F. Configure Portgroup Load Based Teaming
210-451 exam Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 45
IaaS is an acronym for what type of Cloud?
A. Instances as a Service
B. Infrastructure as a Service
C. Internet as a Service
D. Images as a Service
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 46
What two protocols does a physical switch and Nexus 1000V support? (Choose two.)
A. MPLS
B. STP
C. ARP
D. CDP
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 47
Which option is the correct steps to regenerate a UCS B-Series SSL certificate?
A. Open an SSH session to the CIMC IP # scope security # scope keyring default # set regenerate yes # commit-buffer
B. Open an SSH session to the CIMC IP # scope certificate # set regenerate yes # commit-buffer
C. Open an SSH session to the CIMC IP # scope security # scope certificate # set regenerate yes # commit-buffer
D. Using the UCSM GUI Navigate to the Admin tab Expand ALL andgt; Key Management Right-click Key Management
and choose regenerate certificate Click OK
Correct Answer: A
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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 600-460 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-15)

QUESTION 1
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise with Cisco Unified CVP, which two statements about how to increase the Cisco Unified CVP availability are true? (Choose two.)
A. Must have SIP Proxy server to pass messages between the gateways and the Cisco Unified CVP servers.
B. Must have voice gateway TCL scripts to handle conditions where the gateways cannot contact the Cisco Unified CVP Call Server to direct the call correctly.
C. Add load balancers to load balance .wav file requests across multiple Cisco Unified CVP Media Servers.
D. Dedicate duplexed VRU peripheral gateways for each Cisco Unified CVP call server.
E. For a single data center with centralized deployment, deploy Cisco Unified CVP with N:N redundancy.
600-460 exam Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
In the Cisco Contact Center Enterprise solution, which process is responsible for peer-to-peer synchronization?
A. ccagent
B. mds
C. router
D. opc
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
What is the semantic meaning of the RouterCallKeyDay variable?
A. It represents a number that corresponds to the day that the call was taken. For example: at midnight it could increment from 151191 to 151192.
B. It represents a string that corresponds to the day that the call was taken. For example: at midnight it could advance from “Monday” to “Tuesday”.
C. It represents a number that uniquely identifies the call during the day it was taken. For example: at midnight it would reset to zero.
D. It represents a sequence number used for ordering rows for the same call.
E. It represents a string that corresponds to a Globally Unique Call Identifier.
600-460 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise is deployed with Cisco Finesse and you make changes to CTI Server, Contact Center Enterprise Administration, or cluster settings. Which service must be restarted for changes to take effect?
A. Cluster Manager
B. System Application Agent
C. Cisco DB
D. Cisco Tomcat
E. Cisco Dirsync
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Within Cisco Unified ICM, which process handles communication between the router and peripheral gateway components?
A. dbagent
B. opcs
C. ccagent
D. mds
600-460 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
One drawback of business process reengineering BPR), sometimes referred to as business process analysis, is:
A. Improved efficiency in the business processes analyzed.
B. Excess of cast over the benefit.
C. Reduction of operational efficiency.
D. Employee resistance to change.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Business process reengineering BPR), or business process analysis, involves processinnovation and process redesign. Instead of improving existing procedures, it finds new waysof doing things. One major drawback of BPR is that employees may be resistant due to fearof layoffs, being replaced, or insecurity about new required skills or tasks that the employeenow has to perform.

QUESTION 7
Heniser Pet Foods manufactures two products, X. and Y. The unit contribution margins for Products X. and Y are US $30 and US $50, respectively. Each product uses Materials A and Product uses 6 pounds of Material A and 12 pounds of Material B. Product Y uses 12 pounds of Material A and 8 pounds of Material B. The company can purchase only 1,200 pounds of Material A and 1,760 pounds of Material B. The optimal mix of products to manufacture is:
A. 146 units of and 0 units of Y.
B. 0 units of X and 100 units of Y.
C. 120 units of and 40 units of Y.
D. 40 units of X. and 120 units of Y.
600-460 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Linear programming is a technique used to maximize a contribution margin function or tominimize a cost function, subject to constraints such as scarce resources orminimum/maximum levels of production. Thus, linear programming is often used forplanning resource allocations. In this problem, the equation to be maximized, called theobjective function, is: U3 $30)K+ $50Y. This equation is to be maximized subject to theconstraints on materials. The two constraint functions are:
Material A: 6X + 12Y < 1,200
Material B: I 2X + 8Y < 1,760
One way to solve this problem is to graph the constraint lines and determine the feasible area. The optimal production level is at an extreme point within the feasible area. The graph showsthat a production level of 120 units of and 40 units of Y is a feasible production level thatmaximizes the contribution margin.

QUESTION 8
Dale has 20 days to complete production of an order for an important customer. The customer wants 96 units of product that may be painted either red or white. The red units can be produced at a rate of 4 per day. The white units, because of a different quality of paint, can be produced at a rate of 7 per day. The materials for the red units cost US $80 each, while the white units cost US $120 each. Dale wants to keep costs at a minimum. What is the constraint that expresses the number of units to be produced?
A. 4R + 7W = 20
B. R4) + W = 7) <20
C. R + W = 20
D. 4R + 7W = 96
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The constraint function that expresses the number of units to be produced is R + W = –I 96,but that is not one of the answer choices. Another constraint is that the total quantities of red R) and white W) units must be produced in 20 or fewer days at a rate of 4 red units per dayand 7 white units per day. Thus, the time constraint is R – 4) + W – 7) 20.

QUESTION 9
The data below were gathered on two different machine centers and two products.  Which item below would be part of a linear programming formulation of this problem?
A. Maximize: Contribution > 4A + 5B.
B. Subject to: A < O.
C. Subject to: 2.5A + 4B < 60.
D. Subject to: 4A + 5B < 130.
600-460 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The linear programming solution is subject to constraints on the availability of machinehours in both centers. For example, products A and B require 2.5 and 4 hours per unit,respectively, inMachine Center 1, but only 60 hours are available. Hence, the optimalproduction of A and B to the following constraint: 2.5 A + 4B < 60

QUESTION 10
A firm must decide the mix of production of Product X and Product Y. There are only two resources used in the two products, resources A and B. Data related to the two products is given in the following table: What is the appropriate objective function to maximize profit?
A. 3X + 7Y
B. 2X+Y
C. 8X + 6Y
D. 5X + 8Y
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The objective function is the function to be optimized. This firm wishes to maximize profitson the sales of two products X and Y). Based on profits per unit US $8 and US $6,respectively), the objective function is 8X + 6Y.

QUESTION 11
To remove the effect of seasonal variation from a time series, original data should be:
A. Increased by the seasonal factor.
B. Reduced by the seasonal factor.
C. Multiplied by the seasonal factor.
D. Divided by the seasonal factor.
600-460 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Seasonal variations are common in many businesses. To remove the effect of seasonalvariation from a time series, the original data with the four trends) is divided by the seasonalnorm.

QUESTION 12
Sales representatives for a manufacturing company are reimbursed for 100 percent of their cellular telephone bills. Cellular telephone costs vary significantly from representative to representative and from month to month, complicating the budgeting and forecasting processes. Management has requested that the internal auditors develop a method for controlling these costs. Which of the following would most appropriately be included in the scope of the consulting project?
A. Control self-assessment involving sales representatives.
B. Benchmarking with other cellular telephone users.
C. Business process review of procurement and payables routines.
D. Performance measurement and design of the budgeting and forecasting processes.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A business process review BPR) assesses the performance of administrative, financial, andother processes, such as those within the procurement and payables functions. BPR considersprocess effectiveness and efficiency, including the presence of appropriate controls, tomitigate business risk. It seeks to achieve improvements in such critical measures ofperformance as cost, quality, service, speed, and customer satisfaction. Because the objectiveis to control cellular phone costs, BPR is the appropriate tool. Section 2: Sec Two (158 to 276) Details: Managing Resources and Pricing

QUESTION 13
The order costs associated with inventory management include:
A. Insurance costs, purchasing costs, shipping costs, and obsolescence.
B. Obsolescence, setup costs, quantity discounts lost, and storage costs.
C. Quantity discounts lost, storage costs, handling costs, and interest on capital invested.
D. Purchasing costs, shipping costs, setup costs, and quantity discounts lost.
600-460 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Order costs include purchasing costs, shipping costs, setup costs for a production run, andquantity discounts lost.

QUESTION 14
The carrying costs associated with inventory management include:
A. Insurance costs, shipping costs, storage costs, and obsolescence.
B. Storage costs, handling costs, capital invested, and obsolescence.
C. Purchasing costs, shipping costs, setup costs, and quantity discounts lost.
D. Obsolescence, setup costs, capital invested, and purchasing costs.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Carrying costs include storage costs, handling costs, insurance costs, interest on capitalinvested, and obsolescence. Candman Company is a wholesale distributor of candy. Thecompany leases space in a public warehouse and is charged according to the square feetoccupied. Candman has decided to employ the economic order quantity 0Q) method todetermine the optimum number of cases of candy to order. The company placed 2,400 orderslast year. Data for the high activity month, the low-activity month, and the year for thepurchasing and warehouse operations appear in the next column. The annual charges for thewarehouse totaled US $12,750 last year. In addition, the annual insurance and property taxeson the candy stored in the warehouse amounted to US $1,500 and US $2,250, respectively. The average monthly inventory last year was US $75,000.

QUESTION 15
What is the incremental cost of placing an order that would be used in the EOO model?
A. US $48
B. US $35
C. US $24
D. US $19
600-460 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The incremental cost of additional orders equals the variable costs incurred in purchasing andreceiving inventory but not costs associated with shipping). Using the high-low method ofanalysis, these variable costs can be computed by determining the apparent variable costs forthetwo given levels of activity. For 160 orders, the relevant costs with a variable elementinclude purchasing clerks, US $1,750: supplies, US $400, and receiving clerks, US $2,200. The total is US $4,350. For 100 orders, these costs are US $1,250, US $260, and US $1,700,respectively, for a total of US $3,210. As the number of orders increased by 60, the costsincreased by US $1 .140. Consequently, the variable or incremental costs per order musthave been US $19 $1 .140 – 60 orders). Candman Company is a wholesale distributor ofcandy. The company leases space in a public warehouse and is charged according to thesquare feet occupied.
Candman has decided to employ the economic order quantity 0Q)method to determine the optimum number of cases of candy to order. The company placed2,400 orders last year. Data for the high-activity month, the low- activity month, and the yearfor the purchasing and warehouse operations appear in the next column. The annual chargesfor the warehouse totaled US $12,750 last year. In addition, the annual insurance andproperty taxes on the candy stored in the warehouse amounted to US $1,500 and US $2,250,respectively. The average monthly inventory last year was US $75,000.

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 400-251 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-31)
QUESTION 1
You’ve set up a software update server. Which is a valid method of configuring client computers to retrieve updates from your server?
A. In the Sharing pane of System Preferences on the client computers, click Update Server, then select your server from the Update Servers list
B. Install a configuration profile with a Software Update payload specifying the URL of your software update server
C. Install an XML file in /Library/SoftwareUpdates/ on the client computers containing the IP address of your server
D. In the App Store app on the client computers, choose App Store > Preferences, click Updates, and select your server from the Update Servers list
400-251 exam 
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
When creating a network disk image that will be stored at the root of a volume, which action should you add to the workflow so that the network disk image can be used to start up a computer?
A. Define Image Source
B. Define NetRestore Source
C. Bless NetBoot Image Folder
D. Enable Automated Installation
E. Create Image
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
In OS X Server, which feature does the Software Update service provides, but the Caching service does NOT?
A. The caching of software updates from Apple
B. The caching of software purchased from the Mac App Store
C. The ability to select which Apple software updates are available to managed client computers
D. The ability to deliver custom-built installation packages to client computers
E. The caching of books purchased through iTunes
400-251 dumps 
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You used Terminal to configure an OS X computer to retrieve updates from PretendCo’s internal software update server, but the server is no longer active. How would you point the client computer back to the Apple Software Update server to retrieve software updates?
A. In Terminal, type sudo defaults delete /Library/Preferences/com.apple.SoftwareUpdate CatalogURL and press Return
B. In App Store preferences, click Reset Software Updates
C. In Terminal, type sudo defaults write /Library/Preferences/com.apple.SoftwareUpdate CatalogURL “http://updates.apple.com:8088/index.sucatalog” and press Return
D. In the General pane of System Preferences, click Reset Software Updates
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
How can you configure an unmanaged OS X computer to retrieve software updates from a software
update server at updates.pretendcom?

A. In Terminal, type sudo defaults write com.pretendco.updates SoftwareUpdates and press Return
B. In Software Update preferences, click the Advanced tab and enter “updates.pretendco.com” in the URL field
C. In App Store preferences, click the Advanced tab and enter “updates.pretendco.com” in the Update Server field
D. In Terminal, type sudo defaults write /Library/Preferences/com.apple.Softwarellpdate CatalogURL “http://updates.pretendco.com:8088/index.sucatalog” and press Return
400-251 pdf 
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Your Mac hasn’t booted from a NetInstall server before. Which key(s) do you hold down during startup so that the computer boots from the default network boot image provided by a NetInstall server?
A. N
B. Control-N
C. Command-N
D. Command-Shift-N
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Where on an OS X Mavericks computer would you find the utility to create a network disk image?
A. /Applications/
B. /Applications/Utilities/
C. /Library/CoreServices/
D. /System/Library/CoreServices/
400-251 vce 
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which term is used in Apple Remote Desktop to describe an organized collection of computers that you want to manage similarly?
A. Task Server
B. Workgroup
C. Managed group
D. Computer list
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which protocol is used by Mac computers to discover NetInstall servers?
A. Peer Discovery Protocol (PDP)
B. Bonjour
C. Boot Service Discovery Protocol (BSDP)
D. Simple Service Discovery Protocol (SSDP)
400-251 exam 
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
What do you need to do on an OS X computer on your local network so that it’s able to take advantage of a Caching server located at server.pretendco.com on the same network?
A. In the App Store pane of System Preferences, click the Caching Server button and select your new Caching server

B. In the App Store app, choose App Store > Preferences, click the Caching Server tab, click the Add (+) button, locate your Caching server, and
C. In the Software Update pane of System Preferences, click the Caching Server button and select your new Caching server
D. No configuration is required on the OS X computer
E. In Terminal, enter defaults write /Library/Preferences/com.apple.Caching CatalogURL “http:// server.pretendco.com:8088/catalogs.cachingcatalog”
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 11
When using the file import scanner to import a list of computers to be managed into Apple Remote Desktop, which TWO computer properties can be used to specify which computers will be managed? (Choose TWO)
A. MAC address
B. IP addresses
C. Computer names
D. Fully qualified domain names
E. Remote Management ID
400-251 dumps 
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 12
In reference to Profile Manager, what is a payload?
A. A collection of settings in the configuration profile
B. An application installed on a computer via a profile
C. The list of computers where a configuration profile will be installed
D. An OS X app to be installed on the client computer
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
What do you use to create and manage Profile Manager configuration profiles?
A. Server Admin
B. System Preferences
C. A web browser
D. Workgroup Manager
E. Server app
400-251 pdf 
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
You have a USB flash drive connected to a Mavericks computer that has the OS X Mavericks Installer app downloaded. Which of these steps should you perform to make the flash drive a bootable installer volume?
A. Use Disk Utility to restore the disk image contained within the OS X Mavericks Installer app to the USB flash drive
B. In Terminal, use the create install media command contained within the OS X Mavericks Installer app to make the flash drive bootable using Installer app
C. In Terminal, use diskutil command to restore the disk image contained within the OS X Mavericks Installer app to the USB flash drive
D. Copy the OS X Mavericks Installer app to the flash drive and create a workflow in Automator that uses the Bless Installer Volume action to make the flash drive bootable
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which tool can you use to configure the NetInstall service on a computer running OS X Server?
A. Server app
B. System Image Utility
C. Server Admin
D. Workgroup Manager
E. NetBoot Admin
F. System Preferences
400-251 vce 
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 16
Which payload is required in all configuration profiles?
A. Passcode
B. Certificate
C. General
D. Restrictions
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Previously, you used a keyboard shortcut to get your computer to boot from a default image on a NetInstall server. Recently, the administrator selected a different image as the default NetInstall image. What key(s) should you press during startup to force your computer to boot from the new default image?
A. N
B. Control-N
C. Command-N
D. Option-N
E. Command-Shift-N
400-251 exam 
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
While creating a customized network disk image, which Automator action should you add to set the computer name for computers that are restored using the image?
A. Add Configuration Profiles
B. Apply System Configuration Settings
C. Bless NetBoot Image Folder
D. Define Image Source
E. Define Multi-Volume NetRestore
F. Define NetRestore Source
G. Filter Clients by MAC Address
H. Filter Computer Models
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Your Mac was stolen. Fortunately, it’s managed by the Profile Manager service on the server at manage.pretendco.com. In a browser, what URL to access Profile Manager to wipe your Mac?
A. https://wipe.manage.pretendco.com/
B. https://manage.pretendco.com/wipe/

C. https://manage.pretendco.com/mydevices/
D. https://mydevices.manage.pretendco.com/
400-251 dumps 
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
What is the file extension for the complete network boot image created by System Image Utility?
A. .image
B. .netboot
C. .nbi
D. .dmg
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
While creating a customized network disk image, which Automator action should you add to the workflow to restrict which computer types start up using the image?
A. Add Configuration Profiles
B. Apply System Configuration Settings
C. Bless NetBoot Image Folder
D. Customize Package Selection
E. Define Multi-Volume NetRestore
F. Define NetRestore Source
G. Filter Clients by MAC Address
H. Filter Computer Models
400-251 pdf 
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
What’s the format of a configuration profile?
A. Tab-delimited text
B. Comma-delimited text
C. RTF
D. XML
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Which THREE reports can Apple Remote Desktop run by default? (Choose THREE)
A. CPU Usage
B. Software Serial Number
C. Software Version
D. Application Usage
E. Software Difference
F. Network Usage
400-251 vce 
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 24
Which tool do you use to turn on and configure the Profile Manager service?
A. Profile Monitor

B. Server Admin
C. Workgroup Manager
D. Server app
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
What’s the earliest version of OS X that can be installed on a client computer so that it can use the Caching service on a computer running OS X Server?
A. MacOSXv10.6.8
B. OSXV10.7
C. OS Xv10.7.4
D. OSXv10.8
E. OSXv10.8.2
F. OSXv10.9
400-251 exam 
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 26
Which feature is available in the Software Update service in OS X Server?
A. The ability to restrict client computers to download Apple software updates from your software update server only
B. The ability to create and distribute custom software update packages to client computers, along with Apple software updates
C. The ability to automatically download all Apple software updates but serve only selected updates to client computers
D. The ability to restrict client computers’ access to Apple software updates based on client computer Ethernet addresses
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
Which application do you use to configure and monitor the Software Update service on a computer running OS X Server?
A. Server app
B. A web browser
C. Workgroup Manager
D. Profile Manager
400-251 dumps 
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
Which URL should you send to users so they can enroll their devices with your Profile Manager server at manage.pretendco.com?
A. https://profilemanager.manage.pretendco.com
B. https://mydevices.manage.pretendco.com
C. https://manage.pretendco.com/profilemanager
D. https://manage.pretendco.com/mydevices
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
Which three additional configuration elements must you apply to complete a functional Flex VPN deployment?(Choose three)
A. Interface Loopback0 Tunnel mode ipsec ipv6 Tunnel protection ipsec profile default
B. Aaa authorization network ccie local
C. Crypto ikev2 keyring default Peer PEER-ROUTER Address 2001 101/64
Interface Virtual-Template5 type tunnel
Ip nhrp network-id 10
Ip nhrp shortcut Loopack0
D. Crypto ikev2 keyring KEYS Peer PEER-ROUTER Address 2001 101/64 Crypto ikev2 profile default
Aaa authorization group pak list ccie default
E. Interface Tunnelo Bfd interval 50 min-rx 50 multiplier 3 No bfd echo
F. Interface Virtual-Template5 type tunnel Ip nhrp network-id 10
Ipv6 enable
Interface Lookback0
Ipv6 eigrp 10
400-251 pdf 
Correct Answer: DEF

QUESTION 30
<featureCheck>
<deviceResponse>
<feature>

name=”json”
support=”yes”
</feature>
</deviceResponse>
</featureCheck>
Which data format is used in this script?
A. API
B. JavaScript
C. JSON
D. YANG
E. XML
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 31
Which two options are unicast address types for IPv6 addressing?(Choose two)
A. Link-local.
B. Established.
C. Global
D. Dynamic
E. Static
400-251 vce 
Correct Answer: AC

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QUESTION 1
An application is creating hashes of each file on an attached storage device. Which of the following will typically occur during this process?
A. An increase in the amount of time it takes for the system to respond to requests
B. Reduced risk of an attack
C. Increased risk of an attack
D. A reduction in the amount of time it takes for the system to respond to requests
200-155 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
You have been assigned to configure a DMZ that uses multiple firewall components. Specifically, you must configure a router that will authoritatively monitor and, if necessary, block traffic. This device will be the last
one that inspects traffic before it passes to the internal network. Which term best describes this device?
A. Screening router
B. Bastion host
C. Proxy server
D. Choke router
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
A distributed denial-of-service (DDOS) attack has occurred where both ICMP and TCP packets have
crashed the company’s Web server. Which of the following techniques will best help reduce the severity of this attack?
A. Filtering traffic at the firewall
B. Changing your ISP
C. Installing Apache Server rather than Microsoft IIS
D. Placing the database and the Web server on separate systems
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Which of the following is considered to be the most secure default firewall policy, yet usually causes the most work from an administrative perspective?
A. Configuring the firewall to respond automatically to threats
B. Blocking all access by default, then allowing only necessary connections
C. Configuring the firewall to coordinate with the intrusion-detection system
D. Allowing all access by default, then blocking only suspect network connections
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Which of the following is most likely to pose a security threat to a Web server?
A. CGI scripts
B. Database connections
C. Flash or Silverlight animation files
D. LDAP servers
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
What is the first tool needed to create a secure networking environment?
A. User authentication
B. Confidentiality
C. Security policy
D. Auditing
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
Irina has contracted with a company to provide Web design consulting services. The company has asked her to use several large files available via an HTTP server. The IT department has provided Irina with user name and password, as well as the DNS name of the HTTP server. She then used this information to obtain the files she needs to complete her task using Mozilla Firefox. Which of the following is a primary risk factor when authenticating with a standard HTTP server?
A. HTTP usescleartext transmission during authentication, which can lead to a man-in-the- middle attack.
B. Irina has used the wrong application for this protocol, thus increasing the likelihood of a man-in- the middle attack.
C. A standard HTTP connection uses public-key encryption that is not sufficiently strong, inviting the possibility of a man-in-the-middle attack.
D. Irina has accessed the Web server using a non-standard Web browser.
200-155 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Requests for Web-based resources have become unacceptably slow. You have been assigned to implement a solution that helps solve this problem. Which of the following would you recommend?
A. Enablestateful multi-layer inspection on the packet filter
B. Implement caching on the network proxy server
C. Enable authentication on the network proxy server
D. Implement a screening router on the network DMZ
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
You have discovered that the ls, su and ps commands no longer function as expected. They do not return information in a manner similar to any other Linux system. Also, the implementation of Tripwire you have installed on this server is returning new hash values. Which of the following has most likely occurred?
A. Atrojan has attacked the system.
B. A SQL injection attack has occurred.
C. A spyware application has been installed. D.
A root kit has been installed on the system.
200-155 exam Correct Answer:
QUESTION 10
Which of the following organizations provides regular updates concerning security breaches and issues?
A. IETF
B. ISO
C. ICANN
D. CERT
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
You have been asked to encrypt a large file using a secure encryption algorithm so you can send it via e mail to your supervisor. Encryption speed is important. The key will not be transmitted across a network. Which form of encryption should you use?
A. Asymmetric
B. PGP
C. Hash
D. Symmetric
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Which of the following is the most likely first step to enable a server to recover from a denial-of- service attack in which all hard disk data is lost?
A. Enable virtualization
B. Contact the backup service
C. Contact a disk recovery service
D. Rebuild your RAID 0 array
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
You purchased a network scanner six months ago. In spite of regularly conducting scans using this software, you have noticed that attackers have been able to compromise your servers over the last month. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this problem?
A. The network scanner needs to be replaced.
B. The network scanner is no substitute for scans conducted by an individual.
C. The network scanner has atrojan.
D. The network scanner needs an update.
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
What is the primary use of hash (one-way) encryption in networking?
A. Signing files, for data integrity
B. Encrypting files, for data confidentiality
C. Key exchange, for user authentication
D. User authentication, for non-repudiation
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
Which of the following will best help you ensure a database server can withstand a recently discovered vulnerability?
A. Updating the company vulnerability scanner and conducting a new scan
B. Adding a buffer overflow rule to the intrusion detection system
C. Reconfiguring the firewall
D. Installing a system update
200-155 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
You have determined that the company Web server has several vulnerabilities, including a buffer overflow that has resulted in an attack. The Web server uses PHP and has direct connections to an Oracle database server. It also uses many CGI scripts. Which of the following is the most effective way to respond to this attack?
A. Installing software updates for the Web server daemon
B. Using the POST method instead of the GET method for a Web form
C. Installing an intrusion detection service to monitor logins
D. Using the GET method instead of the POST method for a Web form
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Which of the following standards is used for digital certificates?
A. DES
B. Diffie-Hellman
C. X.509
D. RC5
200-155 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
At the beginning of an IPsec session, which activity occurs during the Internet Key Exchange (IKE)?
A. Determining the number of security associations
B. Negotiating the authentication method
C. Determining the network identification number
D. Negotiating the version of IP to be used
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
A security breach has occurred in which a third party was able to obtain and misuse legitimate authentication information. After investigation, you determined that the specific cause for the breach was that end users have been placing their passwords underneath their keyboards. Which step will best help you resolve this problem?
A. Discipline specific end users as object lessons to the rest of the staff and reset passwords on all systems immediately.
B. Change all passwords on the company servers immediately and inform end users that their passwords will be changing on a regular basis.
C. Set passwords to expire at specific intervals and establish mandatory continual training sessions.
D. Inform end users that their passwords will be changing on a regular basis and require more complex passwords.
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
You have implemented a version of the Kerberos protocol for your network. What service does Kerberos primarily offer?
A. Authentication
B. Encryption
C. Non-repudiation
D. Data integrity
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
Consider the following series of commands from a Linux system: iptables -A input -p icmp -s 0/0 0/0 -j REJECT Which explanation best describes the impact of the resulting firewall ruleset?
A. Individuals on remote networks will no longer be able to use SSH to control internal network resources.
B. Internal hosts will not be able to ping each other using ICMP.
C. Stateful multi-layer inspection has been enabled.
D. Individuals on remote networks will not be able to use ping to troubleshoot connections.
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
A CGI application on the company’s Web server has a bug written into it. This particular bug allows the application to write data into an area of memory that has not been properly allocated to the application. An
attacker has created an application that takes advantage of this bug to obtain credit card information. Which of the following security threats is the attacker exploiting, and what can be done to solve the problem?
A. – Buffer overflow – Work with the Web developer to solve the problem
B. – SQL injection – Work with a database administrator to solve the problem
C. – Denial of service – Contact the organization that wrote the code for the Web server
D. – Man-in-the-middle attack – Contact the company auditor
Correct Answer: A

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Exam Code: 640-911
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Networking
Q&As: 208

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QUESTION 99
The dot1x command is used to enable 802.1x authentication globally or on an interface. Which statements
about the undo dot1x command are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. It is used to disable 802.1x authentication globally.
B. It will disconnect online users from the interface; therefore, use the command with caution.
C. It is used to disable 802.1x authentication on an interface.
D. Ensure that there are no online users before you run the undo dot1x command. Otherwise, running the
undo dot1x command fails.
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 100
The dot1x authentication-method command is used to set the 802.1x authentication mode. Which is the
most secure authentication mode?
A. PAP
B. EAP
C. CHAP
D. EAP-TTLS
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 101
Which statements about guest VLAN configuration are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. The guest VLAN must be created before you configure the guest VLAN.
B. The default VLAN of the interface cannot be configured as the guest VLAN.
C. Different interfaces can be configured with different guest VLANs.
D. An interface can be configured with up to eight guest VLANs.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 102
If you have run the dot1x port-method command with the port parameter specified (port-based 802.1x
authentication), the maximum number of users on an interface changes to 1. In this case, which
statements are true? (Select 2 Answers)
A. You can run the dot1x max-user command to change the maximum number of access users.
B. You cannot run the dot1x max-user command to set the maximum number of access users.
C. You need to run the undo dot1x port-method command, and then set the maximum number of access
users.
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: BC

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Exam Code: 300-370
Exam Name: Troubleshooting Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks
Q&As: 60

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QUESTION 95
Which Cisco WLC debug command allows you to determine if the certificate process is failing in the CAPWAP messages?
A. debug pm pki enable
B. debug cert events enable
C. debug capwap events enable
D. debug capwap packet enable
E. debug capwap errors enable
300-370 exam Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 96
Employees upgraded company issued OS devices. Which are configured to authenticate to the network using WPA2- Eniefpnse 802 lx with LEAP As a result, the devices are no longer able to authenticate. Which action must the engineer do 10 resolve the issue?
Refer to the exhibit.

300-370 dumps

A. Redeploy the existing configuration profile.
B. Change LEAP certificate on the ACS server.
C. Reset the network settings on the devices.
D. Rejoin the enterprise network manually.
E. Deploy a new configuration profile with LEAP enabled
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 97
An engineer has configured 802 1x for the network and all but one of the APs are passing authentication. Which configurationiscausing the failure?
A. The AP has override global credentials checked.
B. The switch AAA credentials do not match what is configured on ISE.
C. The controller 802 1x supplicant credentials do not match what is configured on ISE
D. EAP-FAST is configured on ISE for this AP.

300-370 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 98
An AP will be deployed to an area where DHCP Option 43 is unavailable and the WLAN engineer is unable to have DNS modifications made to support this AP. Which two actions can enable the AP to join the WLC? (Choose two)
A. Issue the clear capwap private-config command in the AP console.
B. Pre-stage or prime the AP on the same Layer 2 VLAN as the WLC.
C. Issue the capwap ap ip default-gateway WLC IP address command in the AP console.
D. Issue the capwap ap ip address WLC IP address command in the AP console.
E. Issue the capwap ap controller ip address WLC IP address command in the AP console.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 99
A Wireless LAN Cisco engineer is troubleshooting 802. 11ac WLAN at customer site Doe to interferences with neighboring 802 11n networks the engineer must determine the current primary secondary channel allocation to enhance the current configuration. Channel 60 has been chosen by the customer as primary 20 MHz channel. Which combination determines the resulting primary 40 MHz and primary 80 MHZ channels?
A. primary 40 MHz channel 62, primary 80 MM: channel 58
B. primary 40 MHz channel 54, primary 80 MHz channel 58
C. primary 40 MHz channel 64, primary 80 MHz channel 60
D. primary 40 MHz channel 60, primary 80 MHz channel 56
300-370 pdf Correct Answer: A
Question No : 100 What is one cause of oscillatory transients?
A. Lightning strikes
B. Non-unity power factors
C. Motors turning on and off
D. Static electricity discharges
Answer: C
Question No : 101 Click the Exhibit button.
Which type of power problem is shown in the exhibit?
A. DC offset
B. Interruption
C. Undervoltage
D. Harmonic distortion
300-370 vce Answer: A
Question No : 102  Why are frequency variations a small concern for data center managers?
A. Frequency variation helps server performance.
B. Computer power supplies are frequency tolerant.
C. Frequency variation is strictly a theoretical problem.
D. Frequency variation occurs during sag conditions, which the UPS resolves.
Answer: B
Question No : 103 A power line conditioner can compensate for which two events?
A. DC offset
B. Interruptions
C. Current increases
D. Voltage fluctuations
300-370 exam Answer: A,D
Question No : 104 Which two ways does a transient voltage surge suppressor (TVSS) work? (Choose two.)
A. Absorbs transient energy
B. Short circuits the energy to ground
C. Closes the circuit and stops the energy flow
D. Compensates for the voltage change with battery power
Answer: A,B
Question No : 105  What are two causes of impulsive transients? (Choose two.)
A. Lightning strikes
B. Generator switch-over
C. Air conditioner starting up
D. Electrostatic discharge (ESD)
300-370 dumps Answer: A,D
Question No : 106  What is a result of an undervoltage condition?
A. Transients
B. Motors overheating
C. Power distribution oversizing
D. UPS frequency compensation
Answer: B
Question No : 107 Which two would cause a swell? (Choose two.)
A. Ground fault interrupt
B. Sudden load reductions
C. Single-phase fault in a three-phase system
D. Automatic transfer switch (ATS) transfer to secondary power
300-370 pdf Answer: B,C
Question No : 108 Which solution would remedy a power interruption?
A. UPS
B. Power line conditioner
C. Power factor corrected power supply
D. Transient voltage surge suppressor (TVSS)
Answer: A
Question No : 109 Undervoltage is a more technically accurate term to describe what event?
A. Blackout
B. Brownout
C. Power drought
D. Power suppression
300-370 vce Answer: B
Question No : 110 When is frequency variation a more likely occurrence?
A. When using new UPS technology
B. When using older UPS technology
C. When a generator is heavily loaded
D. When using three-phase power distribution
Answer: C
Question No : 111 Click the Exhibit button.
What does the shaded area in the exhibit represent?
A. Deferred investment
B. Waste due to oversizing
C. Total redundant capacity
D. Additional power needed
300-370 exam Answer: B
Question No : 112  Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which type of power problem is illustrated?
A. DC offset
B. Overvoltage
C. Undervoltage
D. Harmonic distortion
Answer: D
Question No : 113 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which power problem is illustrated?
A. DC offset
B. Voltage fluctuation
C. Harmonic distortion
D. Frequency variation
300-370 dumps Answer: D
Question No : 114 Which can cause a swell or surge to occur in the data center’s electrical system?
A. UPS failure
B. CRAC unit startup
C. Transformer failure
D. Sudden load reduction
Answer: D
Question No : 115 Click the Exhibit button.
Which type of power problem is illustrated in the exhibit?
A. Harmonics
B. Overvoltage
C. Overcurrent
D. Frequency variation
300-370 pdf Answer: B

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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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QUESTION 11
What is the purpose of the Integrity component of the CIA triad?
A. to ensure that only authorized parties can modify data
B. to determine whether data is relevant
C. to create a process for accessing data
D. to ensure that only authorized parties can view data
210-260 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
What VPN feature allows Internet traffic and local LAN/WAN traffic to use the same network connection?
A. split tunneling
B. hairpinning

C. tunnel mode
D. transparent mode
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps

With which NTP server has the router synchronized?
A. 192.168.10.7
B. 108.61.73.243
C. 209.114.111.1
D. 132.163.4.103
E. 204.2.134.164
F. 241.199.164.101
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION: 14
Each time our corporate development team makes a change to the service logic it is required to
publish a new version of the service contract. Our customers are complaining because their
service consumer programs become incompatible with new service contract versions and
therefore no longer work. Which of the following service-orientation principles is most likely
to help us solve this on-going problem? Select the correct answer.
A. Service Reusability
B. Service Statelessness
C. Service Loose Coupling
D. Service Autonomy
Answer: C
QUESTION: 15
When applying the Service Loose Coupling design principle, we want to the
coupling of the service logic to the service contract because that allows the service contract to
remain from the service logic. Select the correct answer.

A. increase, decoupled
B. reduce, decoupled
C. increase, coupled
D. reduce, coupled
210-260 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION: 16
Which of the following service-orientation principles support the application of the Service
Composability principle? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A. Standardized Service Contract
B. Service Autonomy
C. Service Integration
D. Service Statelessness
Answer: A, B, D
QUESTION: 17
The composition member is the runtime role assumed by a service with a capability that is
executing the parent composition logic required to compose capabilities within other services.
Select the correct answer.
A. True
B. False
210-260 vce Answer: B
QUESTION: 18
Which of the following characteristics is not a result of the consistent application of service
orientation principles? Select the correct answer.
A. reduced dependencies between services
B. increased availability and scalability of services
C. reduced behavioral predictability of services

D. increased awareness of services
Answer: C
QUESTION: 19
A service contract publishes information that makes guarantees about how the service will
behave at runtime and when it will be available. These types of guarantees are associated with
which service meta information type? Select the correct answer.
A. technology
B. programmatic
C. functional
D. quality of service
210-260 exam Answer: D
QUESTION: 20
As a first step toward replacing a corporate customer database, a company attempts to limit
access to customer services via an official Customer entity service. However, some time later it
is discovered that several applications have been bypassing the Customer service in order to
directly access the customer database. As a result, these applications exhibit which negative
form of coupling? Select the correct answer.
A. Contract-to-Implementation
B. Consumer-to-Implementation
C. Consumer-to-Contract
D. Contract-to-Technology
Answer: B
QUESTION: 21
Which of the following is not a design characteristic that is realized by the application of the
Service Reusability principle? Select the correct answer.
A. The service is defined by an agnostic functional context.
B. The service logic is generic.

C. The service is primarily associated with the task service model.
D. The service design approach is influenced by commercial product design practices.
210-260 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION: 22
The service-oriented architectural model is business-driven so that it can stay in alignment with
how the business may change over time. Select the correct answer.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION: 23
I have a service composition with three services. Service A retrieves a list of country codes
from a database and keeps this data in memory while interacting with Service B and Service C.
However, because Service A is concurrently invoked many times, and because each instance of
Service A loads its own copy of the country code data into memory, the demands on the
overall infrastructure become too high and performance and reliability are negatively affected.
Which service-orientation principle can be applied to help solve this problem? Select the
correct answer.
A. Service Reusability
B. Service Autonomy
C. Service Abstraction
D. Service Statelessness
210-260 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION: 24
Which service-orientation principle would be used to justify a corporate policy that limits or
restricts access to technical specifications that show design and technology details about the
underlying implementation of a published service? Select the correct answer.
A. Service Discoverability

B. Service Statelessness
C. Service Autonomy
D. Service Abstraction
Answer: D
QUESTION: 25
Which of the following are considered characteristics associated with service-oriented
technology architecture? Select the correct answer.
A. vendor-neutral
B. business-driven
C. enterprise-centric
D. All of the above
210-260 vce Answer: D
QUESTION: 26
Which of the following are runtime roles associated with service compositions? SELECT ALL
THAT APPLY
A. composition controller
B. composition member
C. composition sequencer
D. composition sub-controller
Answer: A, B, D
QUESTION: 27
Which of the following statements is true? Select the correct answer.
A. The controller service in a service composition automatically loses autonomy because it is
required to compose other services that lie outside of its controlled boundary.
B. The controller service in a service composition automatically loses autonomy because it is
designed as a task service to which service-orientation design principles are not applied.

C. The controller service in a service composition loses autonomy only when state deferral
logic is not built into the service composition design.
D. None of these statements are true.
210-260 exam Answer: A

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