Pass 2017 Latest Microsoft 70-331 Exam with PDF and VCE : Core Solutions of Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013

70-331 Exam – passed, that’s right today I would like to  boast  of it:). I get possibility to participate in two SharePoint trainings:

  • – Core Solutions of Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013
  • – Advanced Solutions of Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013

In the IT market, Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 70-331 exam is the way to success. It is very important to get skills in the field Core Solutions of Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013.

Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013
Exam Name: Core Solutions of Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013
Exam Code: 70-331
Total Questions: 226 Q&As
Last Updated: Mar 20, 2017
Exam Information:https://www.lead4pass.com/70-331.html

In the result a few days ago I’ve passed exam for the first training 70-331 exam. Well, I own MCP in SharePoint 2013! Of course I can’t share too many details but, I have to say: cloud is the future according to Microsoft. And we can see in the 70-331 exam questions. Also I have a few thoughts about Microsoft certification and they are not positive

70-331 exam

70-331 exam

70-331 exam QUESTION 24
Use optimal ServerMBean.ThreadPoolPercentSocketReaders to improve socket performance when WebLogic servers:
A. Are using native I/O performance pack
B. Are using pure-java socket handling rather than native performance pack
C. Are hosting high transaction-oriented operations
D. Are handling highly I/O bound operations
Correct Answer: B
70-331 exam QUESTION 25
What are the supported installation modes for WebLogic Server?
A. Graphical mode, console mode and secure mode
B. Graphical mode, console mode and silent mode
C. Script mode, console mode and silent mode
D. Script mode, console mode and secure mode
E. Script mode, network mode and silent mode
Correct Answer: B
70-331 exam QUESTION 26
Scenario : Consider an upgrade requirement from pre-WebLogic Server 9.x to the WebLogic Server 9.x.
Since the administration scripts in the prior version used WebLogic Ant, the team decides to use the Ant
build.xml approach and extend this to the current version of the server.
As part of the upgrade, due to a change in the database driver, the requirement was to change the URL
and driver name to the latest XA driver. Which of the following approaches would you choose?

A. Use a wlserver Ant task to query all MBeans of type JDBCConnectionPool and replace the driver’s information.
B. Use a wlconfig Ant task to query all MBeans of type JDBCConnectionPool and replace the driver’s information.
C. Use a wldeploy Ant task to redeploy all MBeans of type JDBCConnectionPool and replace the driver’s information.
D. Use wlpackage to search, replace and repackage the application after updating the driver information.

Correct Answer: B
70-331 exam QUESTION 27
Scenario : You have made the decision to migrate all your operations onto WebLogic Server. An application has been chosen from each department for the initial phase of migration one from each of Sales, Marketing, Accounts, and Customer Service. The applications will be deployed as individual EAR files to a cluster of WebLogic Server 9.x instances, each with a pool of connections to an Oracle 10g database that provides corporate and departmental data services. The database team hopes to upgrade the database to use Oracle RAC (Real Application Clusters) shortly, which will require you to configure multiple sets of connections. Connectivity to the existing Service Engineer Dispatch system is via a JMS message bridge. When a service engineer calls in with a report, a message is sent via JMS to the Customer Service application deployed in WebLogic Server. The customer record in the Customer Service database must be updated with details from the message. It is important that the message is not lost because the call management system is not able to resend messages. To address this, the Customer Service application is accessing a persistent JMS Queue using an XA compatible connection factory. When starting WebLogic Server, the Marketing database is unavailable. Which of these Data Source configuration options will ensure that the Marketing application can access its database once it becomes available again? Exhibit:

A. Test Connections On Reserve
B. Test Frequency
C. Connection Creation Retry Frequency
D. Login Delay
E. Profile Connection Reservation Wait

Correct Answer: C
70-331 exam QUESTION 28
Consider a WebLogic Server domain with four managed servers. Two managed servers “S1” and “S2” are part of cluster “A” and the other two (“S3” and “S4”) are part of cluster “B.” Server “S1” is hosting a JMSServer “JMS-server1” with four queues and two topics for the application “App” deployed to both the clusters. For some reason, the machine hosting the server “S1” crashed. The JMSServer “JMS-server1” needs to be reactivated for message production and consumption by the application and also the messages on the server “S1” need to be recovered. Which of the following must be done to reactivate the JMSServer and to recover all the messages from “S1”? Exhibit:

A. Migrate the JMS Service from “S1” to “S2”.
B. Migrate both the JMS Service and JTA Service from “S1” to “S2”.
C. Migrate the JMS Service from “S1” to “S3”.
D. Migrate both the JMS Service and JTA Service from “S1” to “S3”.

Correct Answer: B
70-331 exam QUESTION 29
An application deployed to a server “myserver” shows degraded performance with respect to database related calls and you have decided to capture the data about all the JDBC methods invoked including the arguments and return values by enabling “DebugJDBCSQL” using WLST (WebLogic Scripting Tool). Which one of the following would enable the debug?
A. connect(user, password, url) edit() cd(‘Servers/myserver/ServerDebug/myserver’) set(‘DebugJDBCSQL’,’true’) save()
B. connect(user, password, url) edit()
cd(‘Servers/myserver/ServerDebug/myserver’)
startEdit()
set(‘DebugJDBCSQL’,’true’)
save()
C. connect(user, password, url) edit() cd(‘Servers/myserver/ServerDebug/myserver’) startEdit() set(‘DebugJDBCSQL’,’true’) save() activate()
D. connect(user, password, url) edit() cd(‘Servers/myserver/ServerDebug/myserver’) startEdit() set(‘DebugJDBCSQL’,’true’) activate()

Correct Answer: C
70-331 exam QUESTION 30
Consider a WebLogic instance that reports several failures with respect to multiple subsystems and applications. Logging and debugging is enabled for all the subsystems including configuring diagnostic monitors to capture diagnostic data at both the system and application levels. If the requirement is to be able to perform the analysis in both online and off-line modes, which one of the following would help in meeting the requirement?
A. Configuring diagnostic archive
B. Redirecting the server standard output to a file
C. Capturing server log files
D. Configuring diagnostic monitors to log to a file

Correct Answer: A
70-331 exam QUESTION 31
A notification is an action that is triggered when a watch rule evaluates to true. What are the four main types of diagnostic notifications used with watches in the WebLogic 9.x Diagnostic Framework?
A. JMX, JMS, SMTP, SNMP
B. JMX, RMI, HTTP, HTTPS
C. HTTP, IIOP, T3, RMI
D. JMS, JWS, HTTP, JPD
Correct Answer: A
70-331 exam QUESTION 32
What are the four basic components of a JMS system-resource module in the config.xml in WebLogic 9.x?
A. Name, target, subdeployment, descriptor-file-name
B. Domain, jms-server, connection factory, destination
C. Config.xml, jms-module, subdeployment, descriptor-file-name
D. Name, jms-module, subdeployment, descriptor-file-name
Correct Answer: A
70-331 exam QUESTION 33
The default location for storing JMS persistent messages in WebLogic Server 9.x is: A. Database Store using JDBC
B. WebLogic Persistent Store using a file
C. LDAP server using the embedded LDAP server
D. Remote server using t3 socket buffering

Correct Answer: B
70-331 exam QUESTION 34
Scenario : While you are setting up a WebLogic Server domain for a fulfillment service application you have the following requirements: The Fulfillment application should be scalable and highly available; different users will use the application using a different DNS name. This application is also exposed to some business partners using other protocols in addition to HTTP and this site also needs to be configured for transport level security. Different certificates should be installed in the server for different clients (using different DNS names). Even the site should withstand hardware NIC failures too. The requirement is when the users access the Fulfillment application using a respective DNS name; automatically their application can be served by configuring the following WebLogic Server feature:
A. Connection filter
B. Virtual hosts
C. HTTP URL rules
D. Application deployment order

Correct Answer: B

70-331 exam

It is a vast field that is helpful in all departments today. Information technology speeds up the functionality of business, government affairs, medical care, and other fields of life. In all these departments there is a need of IT experts. Microsoft Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 experts are the first requirement of this field.  With the help of the 70-331 exam questions, a candidate can easily prepare the exam.

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No.1 Reliable Microsoft 70-346 PDF – The Microsoft Office 365 70-346 Exam Simulator

70-346 PDF

Microsoft Office 365 Identities and Requirements is a certification exam focused on the administration of a Microsoft Office 365 tenant in a corporate environment. This course delves into the various topics covered on the 70-346 exam including provisioning, implementing, and managing the products and features of Office 365. The purpose of this Nugget course is to prepare the learner to deploy and maintain Office 365 in their own environment and pass the 70-346 pdf.

Exam Code: 70-346
Exam Name: Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements
Updated: Mar 08, 2017
Q&As: 153
Published: February 17, 2014
Languages: English, Chinese (Simplified), French, German, Japanese, Portuguese (Brazil), Spanish
Audiences:IT professionals
Technology: Microsoft Office 365
Credit toward certification: MCP, MCSA
Exam Information:https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-346.html

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Path Courses:

This series of courses will help prepare you for the 70-346 dumps. The 70-346 exam is the first of two required exams for the MCSA: Office 365 and will give you a grasp of Office 365 identities.

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What you will Learn:

  • Provisioning Office 365
  • Planning and Implementing Networking and Security in Office 365
  • Managing Cloud Identities
  • Implementing and Managing Identities by Using Azure AD Connect
  • Implementing and Managing Federated Identities for Single Sign-on (SSO)
  • Monitoring and Troubleshooting Office 365 Availability and Usage

The journey of becoming a certified professional is a rigorous one, but at the end surely your skill set will entirely reformed and you will welcomed with open arms in the relevant industry. To be professional, you have to get certificate of Microsoft 70-346 exam. To attain certificate you have to pass your exam. Without preparing, you cannot pass your Microsoft 70-346 vce.

Share some Microsoft Specialist 70-346 Exam Questions and Answers Below:

Question No : 1  A company migrates to Office 365. 2,000 active users have valid Office 365 licenses assigned. An additional 5,000 user accounts were created during the migration and testing processes. These users do not have any licensesassigned. You need to remove the Office 365 user accounts that do not have any licenses assigned by using the least amount of administrative effort. Which Windows PowerShell command should you run?
A. Get-MsolUser -All -EnabledFilter “DisabledOnly” | Remove-MsolUser -Force
B. Get-MsolUser-EnabledFilter “DisabledOnly” | Remove-MsolUser -Force
C. Get-MsolUser -All -UnlicensedUsersOnly | Remove-MsolUser -Force
D. Get-MsolUser -UnlicensedUsersOnly | Remove-MsolUser–Force
Answer: C

Question No : 2 DRAG DROP  Litware Inc. has an Office 365 Enterprise El plan. Employees have access to all Office 365
services. Employees in the human resources (HR) department must continue to use the on-premises SharePoint 2013 deployment due to legal requirements. You need to disable access to SharePoint Online for all HR department employees.
How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell commands? To answer, drag the appropriate Windows PowerShell segment to the correct location or locations in the answer area. Each Windows PowerShell segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
70-346 pdf

Question No : 3 HOTSPOT  A company deploys an Office 365 tenant. You prepare to use the bulk add tool to add users to Office 365. You need to prepare a file to use with the bulk add tool. Which fields must you include in the file? To answer, drag the appropriate response to each field. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

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70-346 pdf

Question No : 4 DRAG DROP  A company has 50 employees that use Office 365. You need to enforce password complexity requirements for all accounts. How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell command? To answer, drag
the appropriate Windows PowerShell segment to the correct location or locations. Each Windows PowerShell segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

70-346 pdf

70-346 pdf

Question No : 5 DRAG DROP  You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. Your company uses Office 365 for
collaboration. You must reset the password for all of the employees in your company. You need to ensure that all employees create a new password the next time they sign in to Office 365. How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell command? To answer, drag the appropriate Windows PowerShell segment to the correct location or locations. Each
Windows PowerShell segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
70-346 pdf

Question No : 6  You are the Office 365 administrator for your company.
You must use Windows PowerShell to manage cloud identities in Office 365. You must use
a computer that runs Windows 8 to perform the management tasks.
You need to ensure that the Windows 8 computer has the necessary software installed.
What should you install first?
A. Microsoft Office 365 Best Practices Analyzer for Windows PowerShell
B. Windows PowerShell 4.0
C. Remote Server Administration Tools for Windows
D. Microsoft Online Services Sign-in Assistant
Answer: D

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Free download the latest Microsoft AZ-500 practice exam[2020 up to date]

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Pass4itsure provides the latest updates to the Microsoft AZ-500 practice exam, which will help you pass this exam.AZ-500 dumps https://www.pass4itsure.com/az-500.htmlUpdated: Feb 24, 2020,Q&As: 142. This exam name is Microsoft Azure Security Technologies,Microsoft Certified: Azure Security Engineer Associate.

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Exam AZ-500

Measures your ability to accomplish the following technical tasks: manage identity and access; implement platform protection; manage security operations; and secure data and applications.

For more details about Microsoft AZ-500 Exam, visit https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/az-500

You might be interested in other Microsoft certification exams!

Learn video: Azure Security Engineer Associate AZ-500 Exam

https://youtu.be/wj6MCfSnqAQ

Here are some practice questions | 100% Success Rate

QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure Subscription named Sub1.
You have an Azure Storage account named Sa1 in a resource group named RG1.
Users and applications access the blob service and the file service in Sa1 by using several shared access signatures
(SASs) and stored access policies.
You discover that unauthorized users accessed both the file service and the blob service.
You need to revoke all access to Sa1.
Solution: You create a new stored access policy.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
To revoke a stored access policy, you can either delete it, or rename it by changing the signed identifier. Changing the
signed identifier breaks the associations between any existing signatures and the stored access policy. Deleting or
renaming the stored access policy immediately effects all of the shared access signatures associated with it.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/rest/api/storageservices/Establishing-a-Stored-Access-Policy

QUESTION 2
You assign User8 the Owner role for RG4, RG5, and RG6.
In which resource groups can User8 create virtual networks and NSGs? To answer, select the appropriate options in the
answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-500 exam questions q2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-500 exam questions q2-2

Box 1: RG4 only Virtual Networks are not allowed for Rg5 and Rg6.
Box 2: Rg4,Rg5, and Rg6
Scenario:
Contoso has two Azure subscriptions named Sub1 and Sub2.
Sub1 contains six resource groups named RG1, RG2, RG3, RG4, RG5, and RG6.
You assign User8 the Owner role for RG4, RG5, and RG6
User8 city Sidney, Role:None
Note: A network security group (NSG) contains a list of security rules that allow or deny network traffic to resources
connected to Azure Virtual Networks (VNet). NSGs can be associated to subnets, individual VMs (classic), or individual
network interfaces (NIC) attached to VMs (Resource Manager).
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/governance/policy/overview

QUESTION 3
You have an Azure subscription that contains the virtual machines shown in the following table.

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-500 exam questions q3

You create the Azure policies shown in the following table.

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-500 exam questions q3-2

You create the resource locks shown in the following table.

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-500 exam questions q3-3

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-500 exam questions q3-4

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-500 exam questions q3-5

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/governance/blueprints/concepts/resource-locking

QUESTION 4
From the Azure portal, you are configuring an Azure policy.
You plan to assign policies that use the DeployIfNotExist, AuditIfNotExist, Append, and Deny effects.
Which effect requires a managed identity for the assignment?
A. AuditIfNotExist
B. Append
C. DeployIfNotExist
D. Deny
Correct Answer: C
When Azure Policy runs the template in the deployIfNotExists policy definition, it does so using a managed identity.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/bs-latn-ba/azure/governance/policy/how-to/remediate-resources

QUESTION 5
You suspect that users are attempting to sign in to resources to which they have no access.
You need to create an Azure Log Analytics query to identify failed user sign-in attempts from the last three days. The
results must only show users who had more than five failed sign-in attempts.
How should you configure the query? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-500 exam questions q5

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-500 exam questions q5-2

The following example identifies user accounts that failed to log in more than five times in the last day, and when they
last attempted to log in.
let timeframe = 1d; SecurityEvent | where TimeGenerated > ago(1d) | where AccountType == \\’User\\’ and EventID ==
4625 // 4625 – failed log in | summarize failed_login_attempts=count(), latest_failed_login=arg_max(TimeGenerated,
Account) by Account | where failed_login_attempts > 5 | project-away Account1
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/log-query/examples

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an on-premises Active Directory domain named corp.contoso.com.
You have an Azure subscription named Sub1 that is associated to an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named
contoso.com.
You sync all on-premises identities to Azure AD.
You need to prevent users who have a givenName attribute that starts with TEST from being synced to Azure AD. The
solution must minimize administrative effort.
What should you use?
A. Synchronization Rules Editor
B. Web Service Configuration Tool
C. the Azure AD Connect wizard
D. Active Directory Users and Computers
Correct Answer: A
Use the Synchronization Rules Editor and write attribute-based filtering rule.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/how-to-connect-sync-change-theconfiguration

QUESTION 7
You have an Azure subscription. The subscription contains Azure virtual machines that run Windows Server 2016.
You need to implement a policy to ensure that each virtual machine has a custom antimalware virtual machine
extension installed.
How should you complete the policy? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-500 exam questions q7

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-500 exam questions q7-2

Box 1: DeployIfNotExists
DeployIfNotExists executes a template deployment when the condition is met.
Box 2: Template
The details property of the DeployIfNotExists effects has all the subproperties that define the related resources to match
and the template deployment to execute.
Deployment [required]
This property should include the full template deployment as it would be passed to the Microsoft.Resources/deployment
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/governance/policy/concepts/effects

QUESTION 8
You have the Azure Information Protection conditions shown in the following table.

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-500 exam questions q8

You have the Azure Information Protection labels shown in the following table.

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-500 exam questions q8-2

You need to identify how Azure Information Protection will label files.
What should you identify? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-500 exam questions q8-3

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-500 exam questions q8-4

Box 1: Label 2 only How multiple conditions are evaluated when they apply to more than one label
1. The labels are ordered for evaluation, according to their position that you specify in the policy: The label positioned
first has the lowest position (least sensitive) and the label positioned last has the highest position (most sensitive).
2. The most sensitive label is applied.
3. The last sublabel is applied.
Box 2: No Label
Automatic classification applies to Word, Excel, and PowerPoint when documents are saved, and apply to Outlook when
emails are sent. Automatic classification does not apply to Microsoft Notepad.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/information-protection/configure-policy-classification

QUESTION 9
You plan to use Azure Log Analytics to collect logs from 200 servers that run Windows Server 2016.
You need to automate the deployment of the Microsoft Monitoring Agent to all the servers by using an Azure Resource
Manager template.
How should you complete the template? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-500 exam questions q9

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-500 exam questions q9-2

QUESTION 10
You have an Azure subscription that contains 100 virtual machines. Azure Diagnostics is enabled on all the virtual
machines.
You are planning the monitoring of Azure services in the subscription.
You need to retrieve the following details:
Identify the user who deleted a virtual machine three weeks ago.
Query the security events of a virtual machine that runs Windows Server 2016.
What should you use in Azure Monitor? To answer, drag the appropriate configuration settings to the correct details.
Each configuration setting may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between
panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-500 exam questions q10

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AZ-500 exam questions q10-2

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a hybrid configuration of Azure Active Directory (AzureAD).
You have an Azure HDInsight cluster on a virtual network.
You plan to allow users to authenticate to the cluster by using their on-premises Active Directory credentials.
You need to configure the environment to support the planned authentication.
Solution: You deploy the On-premises data gateway to the on-premises network.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Instead, you connect HDInsight to your on-premises network by using Azure Virtual Networks and a VPN gateway.
Note: To allow HDInsight and resources in the joined network to communicate by name, you must perform the following
actions:
Create Azure Virtual Network.
Create a custom DNS server in the Azure Virtual Network.
Configure the virtual network to use the custom DNS server instead of the default Azure Recursive Resolver.
Configure forwarding between the custom DNS server and your on-premises DNS server.
References:

QUESTION 12
Your company uses Azure DevOps.
You need to recommend a method to validate whether the code meets the company\\’s quality standards and code
review standards.
What should you recommend implementing in Azure DevOps?
A. branch folders
B. branch permissions
C. branch policies
D. branch locking
Correct Answer: C
Branch policies help teams protect their important branches of development. Policies enforce your team\\’s code quality
and change management standards.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/repos/git/branch-policies?view=azuredevopsandviewFallbackFrom=vsts

QUESTION 13
You have an Azure subscription.
You create an Azure web app named Contoso1812 that uses an S1 App service plan.
You create a DNS record for www.contoso.com that points to the IP address of Contoso1812.
You need to ensure that users can access Contoso1812 by using the https://www.contoso.com URL.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Turn on the system-assigned managed identity for Contoso1812.
B. Add a hostname to Contoso1812.
C. Scale out the App Service plan of Contoso1812.
D. Add a deployment slot to Contoso1812.
E. Scale up the App Service plan of Contoso1812.
Correct Answer: BE
B: You can configure Azure DNS to host a custom domain for your web apps. For example, you can create an Azure
web app and have your users access it using either www.contoso.com or contoso.com as a fully qualified domain name
(FQDN).
To do this, you have to create three records:
A root “A” record pointing to contoso.com A root “TXT” record for verification A “CNAME” record for the www name that
points to the A record
E: To map a custom DNS name to a web app, the web app\\’s App Service plan must be a paid tier (Shared, Basic,
Standard, Premium or Consumption for Azure Functions). I
Scale up the App Service plan: Select any of the non-free tiers (D1, B1, B2, B3, or any tier in the Production category).
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/dns/dns-web-sites-custom-domainaa

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2020 Latest 640-554 dumps to crack the CCNA Security exam,Share 640-554 pdf dumps for free

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Exam Number: 640-554
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Cisco 640-554: CCNA Security – Implementing Cisco IOS Network Security [Online Practice questions]

QUESTION 1
How are Cisco IOS access control lists processed?
A. Standard ACLs are processed first.
B. The best match ACL is matched first.
C. Permit ACL entries are matched first before the deny ACL entries.
D. ACLs are matched from top down.
E. The global ACL is matched first before the interface ACL.
Correct Answer: D
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/sw/secursw/ps1018/products_tech_note09186a00800a5b9a.shtml
Process ACLs Traffic that comes into the router is compared to ACL entries based on the order that the entries occur in
the router. New statements are added to the end of the list. The router continues to look until it has a match. If no
matches are found when the router reaches the end of the list, the traffic is denied. For this reason, you should have the
frequently hit entries at the top of the list. There is an implied deny for traffic that is not permitted. A single-entry ACL
with only one deny entry has the effect of denying all traffic. You must have at least one permit statement in an ACL or
all traffic is blocked. These two ACLs (101 and 102) have the same effect.

QUESTION 2
If you are implementing VLAN trunking, which additional configuration parameter should be added to the trunking
configuration?
A. no switchport mode access
B. no switchport trunk native VLAN 1
C. switchport mode DTP
D. switchport nonnegotiate
Correct Answer: D
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/12.2SX/configuration/guide/layer2.html
Layer 2 LAN Port Modes
Table 17-2 lists the Layer 2 LAN port modes and describes how they function on LAN ports. switchport mode access
Puts the LAN port into permanent nontrunking mode and negotiates to convert the link into a nontrunk link. The LAN
port
becomes a nontrunk port even if the neighboring LAN port does not agree to the change.
switchport mode dynamic desirable
Makes the LAN port actively attempt to convert the link to a trunk link. The LAN port becomes a trunk port if the neighboring LAN port is set to trunk, desirable, or auto mode. This is the default mode for all LAN ports.
switchport mode dynamic auto
Makes the LAN port willing to convert the link to a trunk link. The LAN port becomes a trunk port if the neighboring LAN
port is set to trunk or desirable mode. switchport mode trunk Puts the LAN port into permanent trunking mode and
negotiates to convert the link into a trunk link. The LAN port becomes a trunk port even if the neighboring port does not
agree to the change.
switchport nonegotiate
Puts the LAN port into permanent trunking mode but prevents the port from generating DTP frames. You must configure
the neighboring port manually as a trunk port to establish a trunk link.

QUESTION 3
In which stage of an attack does the attacker discover devices on a target network?
A. reconnaissance
B. gaining access
C. maintaining access
D. covering tracks
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which options are filtering options used to display SDEE message types? (Choose two.)
A. stop
B. none
C. error
D. all
Correct Answer: CD
SDEE Messages
Choose the SDEE message type to display:
All — SDEE error, status, and alert messages are shown.
Error — Only SDEE error messages are shown.
Status — Only SDEE status messages are shown.
Alerts — Only SDEE alert messages are shown.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/access/cisco_router_and_security_device_manager/24/software/user/guide/IPS.html#wp1083698

QUESTION 5
Which IPsec transform set provides the strongest protection?
A. crypto ipsec transform-set 1 esp-3des esp-sha-hmac
B. crypto ipsec transform-set 2 esp-3des esp-md5-hmac
C. crypto ipsec transform-set 3 esp-aes 256 esp-sha-hmac
D. crypto ipsec transform-set 4 esp-aes esp-md5-hmac
E. crypto ipsec transform-set 5 esp-des esp-sha-hmac
F. crypto ipsec transform-set 6 esp-des esp-md5-hmac
Correct Answer: C
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/security/security_management/cisco_security_manager/security_manager/4.1/user/guide/vpipsec.html
Table 22-2 IKEv2 Proposal Dialog Box
Name The name of the policy object. A maximum of 128 characters is allowed.
Description A description of the policy object. A maximum of 1024 characters is allowed. Priority The priority value of the
IKE proposal. The priority value determines the order of the IKE proposals compared by the two negotiating peers
when
attempting to find a common security association (SA). If the remote IPsec peer does not support the parameters
selected in your first priority policy, the device tries to use the parameters defined in the policy with the next lowest
priority
number. Valid values range from 1 to 65535. The lower the number, the higher the priority. If you leave this field blank,
Security Manager assigns the lowest unassigned value starting with 1, then 5, then continuing in increments of 5.
Encryption Algorithm
The encryption algorithm used to establish the Phase 1 SA for protecting Phase 2 negotiations. Click Select and select
all of the algorithms that you want to allow in the VPN:
?AES — Encrypts according to the Advanced Encryption Standard using 128-bit keys.
?AES-192 — Encrypts according to the Advanced Encryption Standard using 192-bit keys. ?AES-256 — Encrypts
according to the Advanced Encryption Standard using 256-bit keys.
?DES — Encrypts according to the Data Encryption Standard using 56-bit keys.
?3DES — Encrypts three times using 56-bit keys. 3DES is more secure than DES, but requires more processing for encryption and decryption. It is less secure than AES. A 3DES license is required to use this option.
?Null — No encryption algorithm.
Integrity (Hash) Algorithm
The integrity portion of the hash algorithm used in the IKE proposal. The hash algorithm creates a message digest,
which is used to ensure message integrity.
Click Select and select all of the algorithms that you want to allow in the VPN:
?SHA (Secure Hash Algorithm) — Produces a 160-bit digest. SHA is more resistant to brute-force attacks than MD5.
?MD5 (Message Digest 5) — Produces a 128-bit digest. MD5 uses less processing time than SHA. Prf Algorithm The
pseudo-random function (PRF) portion of the hash algorithm used in the IKE proposal. In IKEv1, the Integrity and PRF
algorithms are not separated, but in IKEv2, you can specify different algorithms for these elements. Click Select and
select
all of the algorithms that you want to allow in the VPN:
?SHA (Secure Hash Algorithm) — Produces a 160-bit digest. SHA is more resistant to brute-force attacks than MD5.
?MD5 (Message Digest 5) — Produces a 128-bit digest. MD5 uses less processing time than SHA.
Modulus Group
The Diffie-Hellman group to use for deriving a shared secret between the two IPsec peers without transmitting it to each
other. A larger modulus provides higher security but requires more processing time. The two peers must have a
matching modulus group. Click Select and select all of the groups that you want to allow in the
VPN:
?1 — Diffie-Hellman Group 1 (768-bit modulus).
?2 — Diffie-Hellman Group 2 (1024-bit modulus). This is the minimum recommended setting. ?5 — Diffie-Hellman Group
5 (1536-bit modulus, considered good protection for 128-bit keys). Select this option if you are using AES encryption.
Lifetime
The lifetime of the security association (SA), in seconds. When the lifetime is exceeded, the SA expires and must be
renegotiated between the two peers. As a general rule, the shorter the lifetime (up to a point), the more secure your IKE
negotiations will be. However, with longer lifetimes, future IPsec security associations can be set up more quickly than
with shorter lifetimes.
You can specify a value from 120 to 2147483647 seconds. The default is 86400.
Category The category assigned to the object. Categories help you organize and identify rules and objects.

QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 640-554 exam questions-q6

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 640-554 exam questions-q6-2

QUESTION 7
When using a stateful firewall, which information is stored in the stateful session flow table?
A. the outbound and inbound access rules (ACL entries)
B. the source and destination IP addresses, port numbers, TCP sequencing information, and additional flags for each
TCP or UDP connection associated with a particular session
C. all TCP and UDP header information only
D. all TCP SYN packets and the associated return ACK packets only
E. the inside private IP address and the translated inside global IP address
Correct Answer: B
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/security/asa/asa82/configuration/guide/intro.html
Stateful Inspection Overview
All traffic that goes through the ASA is inspected using the Adaptive Security Algorithm and either allowed through or
dropped. A simple packet filter can check for the correct source address, destination address, and ports, but it does not
check that the packet sequence or flags are correct. A filter also checks every packet against the filter, which can be a
slow process.
A stateful firewall like the ASA, however, takes into consideration the state of a packet:
?Is this a new connection?
If it is a new connection, the ASA has to check the packet against access lists and perform other tasks to determine if
the packet is allowed or denied. To perform this check, the first packet of the session goes through the “session
management path,” and depending on the type of traffic, it might also pass through the “control plane path.”
The session management path is responsible for the following tasks:
?Performing the access list checks
?Performing route lookups
?Allocating NAT translations (xlates)
?Establishing sessions in the”;fast pat”;
The ASA creates forward and reverse flows in the fast path for TCP traffic; the ASA also creates connection state
information for connectionless protocols like UDP, ICMP (when you enable ICMP inspection), so that they can also use
the fast
path.
Some packets that require Layer 7 inspection (the packet payload must be inspected or altered) are passed on to the
control plane path. Layer 7 inspection engines are required for protocols that have two or more channels:
A data channel, which uses well-known port numbers, and a control channel, which uses different port numbers for each
session. These protocols include FTP, H.323, and SNMP.
?Is this an established connection?
If the connection is already established, the ASA does not need to re-check packets; most matching packets can go
through the “fast” path in both directions. The fast path is responsible for the following tasks:
?IP checksum verification
?Session lookup
?TCP sequence number check
?NAT translations based on existing sessions
?Layer 3 and Layer 4 header adjustments
Data packets for protocols that require Layer 7 inspection can also go through the fast path. Some established session
packets must continue to go through the session management path or the control plane path. Packets that go through
the
session management path include HTTP packets that require inspection or content filtering. Packets that go through the
control plane path include the control packets for protocols that require Layer 7 inspection.

QUESTION 8
Scenario:
You are the security admin for a small company. This morning your manager has supplied you with a list of Cisco ISR
and CCP configuration questions. Using CCP, your job is to navigate the pre-configured CCP in order to find answers
to
your business question.

Pass4itsure 640-554 exam questions-q8

Which Class Map is used by the INBOUND Rule?
A. SERVICE_IN
B. Class-map-ccp-cls-2
C. Ccp-cts-2
D. Class-map SERVICE_IN
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
When port security is enabled on a Cisco Catalyst switch, what is the default action when the configured maximum
number of allowed MAC addresses value is exceeded?
A. The port remains enabled, but bandwidth is throttled until old MAC addresses are aged out.
B. The port is shut down.
C. The MAC address table is cleared and the new MAC address is entered into the table.
D. The violation mode of the port is set to restrict.
Correct Answer: B
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst4500/12.2/20ewa/configuration/guide/port_sec.html
Default Port Security Configuration Port security Disabled on a port Maximum number of secure MAC addresses
Violation mode Shutdown. The port shuts down when the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is exceeded,
and an SNMP trap notification is sent.
Aging Disabled
Aging type Absolute Static Aging Disabled
Sticky Disabled

QUESTION 10
Which security measure must you take for native VLANs on a trunk port?
A. Native VLANs for trunk ports should never be used anywhere else on the switch.
B. The native VLAN for trunk ports should be VLAN 1.
C. Native VLANs for trunk ports should match access VLANs to ensure that cross-VLAN traffic from multiple switches
can be delivered to physically disparate switches.
D. Native VLANs for trunk ports should be tagged with 802.1Q.
Correct Answer: A
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/switches/ps708/products_white_paper09186a008013159f.shtml
Double Encapsulation Attack
When double-encapsulated 802.1Q packets are injected into the network from a device whose VLAN happens to be the
native VLAN of a trunk, the VLAN identification of those packets cannot be preserved from end to end since the 802.1Q
trunk would always modify the packets by stripping their outer tag. After the external tag is removed, the internal tag
permanently becomes the packet\\’s only VLAN identifier. Therefore, by double encapsulating packets with two different
tags,
traffic can be made to hop across VLANs.
This scenario is to be considered a misconfiguration, since the 802.1Q standard does not necessarily force the users to
use the native VLAN in these cases. As a matter of fact, the proper configuration that should always be used is to clear
the native VLAN from all 802.1Q trunks (alternatively, setting them to 802.1q-all- tagged mode achieves the exact same
result). In cases where the native VLAN cannot be cleared, then always pick an unused VLAN as native VLAN of all the
trunks; don\\’t use this VLAN for any other purpose.
Protocols like STP, DTP, and UDLD (check out [3]) should be the only rightful users of the native VLAN and their traffic
should be completely isolated from any data packets.

QUESTION 11
Which access list permits HTTP traffic sourced from host 10.1.129.100 port 3030 destined to host 192.168.1.10?
A. access-list 101 permit tcp any eq 3030
B. access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.128.0 0.0.1 .255 eq 3030 192.1 68.1 .0 0.0.0.15 eq www
C. access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.129.0 0.0.0.255 eq www 192.168.1.10 0.0.0.0 eq www
D. access-list 101 permit tcp host 192.1 68.1 .10 eq 80 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255 eq 3030
E. access-list 101 permit tcp 192.168.1.10 0.0.0.0 eq 80 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255
F. access-list 101 permit ip host 10.1.129.100 eq 3030 host 192.168.1.10 eq 80
Correct Answer: B
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/sw/secursw/ps1018/products_tech_note09186a00800a5b9a.shtml
Extended ACLs
Extended ACLs were introduced in Cisco IOS Software Release 8.3. Extended ACLs control traffic by the comparison of
the source and destination addresses of the IP packets to the addresses configured in the ACL.
IP
access-list access-list-number
[dynamic dynamic-name [timeout minutes]]
{deny|permit} protocol source source-wildcard
destination destination-wildcard [precedence precedence]
[tos tos] [log|log-input] [time-range time-range-name]
ICMP
access-list access-list-number
[dynamic dynamic-name [timeout minutes]]
{deny|permit} icmp source source-wildcard
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destination destination-wildcard
[icmp-type [icmp-code] |icmp-message]
[precedence precedence] [tos tos] [log|log-input]
[time-range time-range-name]
TCP
access-list access-list-number
[dynamic dynamic-name [timeout minutes]]
{deny|permit} tcp source source-wildcard [operator [port]]
destination destination-wildcard [operator [port]]
[established] [precedence precedence] [tos tos]
[log|log-input] [time-range time-range-name]
UDP
access-list access-list-number
[dynamic dynamic-name [timeout minutes]]
{deny|permit} udp source source-wildcard [operator [port]]
destination destination-wildcard [operator [port]]
[precedence precedence] [tos tos] [log|log-input]
[time-range time-range-name]

QUESTION 12
Which option provides the most secure method to deliver alerts on an IPS?
A. IME
B. CSM
C. SDEE
D. syslog
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 640-554 exam questions-q13

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 640-554 exam questions-q13-2

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Cisco ICND2 200-105 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which mode is compatible with Trunk, Access, and desirable ports?
A. Trunk Ports
B. Access Ports
C. Dynamic Auto
D. Dynamic Desirable
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the configuration of the switch interface are correct? (Choose two.)pass4itsure 200-105 exam question q2

A. The switchport belongs only to VLAN 2.
B. By default, all switch ports are members of VLAN 1005.
C. Interface fa0/0 will be in both VLAN 1 (by default) and VLAN 2.
D. The exhibit shows interface fa0/0 to be dynamically mapped to VLAN 2.
E. A network host can be connected to this interface.
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 3
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the trunking terms from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.
Select and Place:pass4itsure 200-105 exam question q3

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 200-105 exam question q3-1

 

QUESTION 4
Which three statements about the ACEs that are matched by a Cisco APIC-EM ACL path are true? (Choose three.)
A. If the trace fails to find a matching ACE in an ACL, it is reported as implicitly permitted.
B. If an optional criterion is omitted from the trace, the results include all possible ACE matches.
C. If the trace fails to find a matching ACE in an ACL, it is reported as implicitly denied.
D. ACEs are reported only if they match.
E. All ACEs found by the trace are reported, including those that fail to match.
F. If an optional criterion is omitted from the trace, the results are reported as if the default value was specified.
Correct Answer: BCD
The following rules effect the ACL path trace results:
Only matching ACEs are reported.
If you leave out the protocol, source port, or destination port when defining a path trace, the results include ACE
matches for all possible values for these fields.
If no matching ACEs exists in the ACL, the flow is reported to be implicitly denied
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/cloud-systems-management/application-policy-infrastructure-controller-enterprise-module/1-2-x/config-guide/b_apic-em_config_guide_v_1-2-x/b_apic-em_config_guide_v_1-2x_chapter_01000.pdf page 24

 

QUESTION 5
Which IPsec security protocol should be used when confidentiality is required?
A. MD5
B. PSK
C. AH
D. ESP
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
In which two models can control-plane functionality be implemented? (Choose two.)
A. Dispersed
B. Distributed
C. Fragmented
D. Centralized
E. Allocated
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 7
For which two reasons do you implement a PAgP EtherChannel? (Choose two.)
A. to dynamically assign VLANs to a trunk port
B. to increase bandwidth
C. to provide redundancy
D. to exchange VLAN information
E. to dynamically determine whether a port is an access port or trunk port
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 8
In which two ways can you isolate the location of a connectivity issue between two devices on your network? (Choose
two.)
A. Test whether the next hop from the source can reach the destination and work toward the destination.
B. Send an extended ping from the destination to the source.
C. Execute a traceroute from the destination and work toward the source to locate the problematic hop.
D. Send an extended ping from the source to the destination.
E. Execute a traceroute from the source to the destination to locate the problematic hop.
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 9
Which two statements identify differences between single-homed and dual-homed WAN topologies? (Choose two.)
A. Dual-homed topologies provide greater redundancy than single-homed topologies
B. Only dual-homed connections require dynamic routing to the ISP
C. Single-homed topologies are more costly to an enterprise than dual-homed topologies
D. Only dual-homed connections are connected to the same ISP
E. Single-homed topologies are more appropriate for small-business networks than dual-homed topologies
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 10
Which two statements about interior gateway routing protocols are true? (Choose two.)
A. They may use the Dijkstra algorithm.
B. They can be used to connect to another AS across the Internet as a virtual instance.
C. They may use the Bellman-Ford algorithm.
D. They cannot be used when two devices are connected through a firewall.
E. They can be used to connect to the Internet backbone.
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 11
What are the two default metrics used by EIGRP for route selection? (Choose two.)
A. Bandwidth
B. Delay
C. Reliability
D. Load
E. MTU
Correct Answer: AB
EIGRP adds together weighted values of different network link characteristics in order to calculate a metric for
evaluating path selection.
These characteristics include:
Delay (measured in 10s of microseconds)
Bandwidth (measured in kilobytes per second)
Reliability (in numbers ranging from 1 to 255; 255 being the most reliable) Load (in numbers ranging from 1 to 255; 255
being saturated) Various constants (K 1 through K 5) are able to be set by a user to produce varying routing behaviors.
However, by default, only delay and bandwidth are used in the weighted formula to produce a single 32bit metric:pass4itsure 200-105 exam question q11

Note: Default K values are: K1 = K3 = 1 and K2 = K4 = K5 = 0. When K5 is equal to 0 then [K5/( K4 + reliability)] is
defined to be 1 Use of the default constants effectively reduces the formula above to:
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/ios-nx-os-software/enhanced-interior-gateway-routing-protocol-eigrp/whitepaper_C11-720525.html


QUESTION 12
Which configuration item is the default username for PPP local authentication?
A. the router MAC address
B. the router hostname
C. cisco
D. The router serial number
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
The network administrator of the Oregon router adds the following command to the router configuration: ip route
192.168.12.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.12.1. What are the results of adding this command? (Choose two.)pass4itsure 200-105 exam question q13

A. The command establishes a static route.
B. The command invokes a dynamic routing protocol for 192.168.12.0.
C. Traffic for network 192.168.12.0 is forwarded to 172.16.12.1.
D. Traffic for all networks is forwarded to 172.16.12.1.
E. This route is automatically propagated throughout the entire network.
F. Traffic for network 172.16.12.0 is forwarded to the 192.168.12.0 network.
Correct Answer: AC

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Cisco Business Architecture Analyst 810-440 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which question provides the best information to use to define customer success factors?
A. What services do you need?
B. Which Cisco products best fit your goals?
C. What tools are you looking for, to better measure your ROI?
D. What are your business objectives for this project/initiative?
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
Which is a critical first step when thinking about how to communicate technical content to a senior business manager?
A. Identify a person on her staff who can explain details.
B. Listen to the customer to understand her KPIs.
C. Plan out your message to explain potential options.
D. Draft a high level message using language pulled from the top IT vendors.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
Which type of organizational goals do key performance indicators measure?
A. tactical
B. financial
C. strategic
D. technological
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
Which option is a structured process to understand business landscape and context?
A. business model canvas
B. business outcomes canvas
C. business model outcomes
D. business canvas approach
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Which option is a benefit of Cisco enablement resources?
A. the ability to create personalized “briefcases” of content
B. a single place to find business proposals and instructor-led training
C. access to kits of bundled content, including IOS images and more
D. it enhances the selling process for seller and the customer
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
Which three options are additional costs arising from a subscription model and should be factored into the total cost of
ownership of IT as a Service?
A. auditing and control
B. cost of hardware and software
C. software asset and managed
D. cost of accounting and tracking
E. quality assurance management
F. chargeback and show back
Correct Answer: ACD

 

QUESTION 7
Which resource can a sales person incorporate into the business outcome story?
A. Include a detailed business strategic plan
B. Describe the project definition.
C. Explain technology innovations.
D. Identify the customers\\’ care-abouts.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
Which two options comprise information you need to achieve successful outcome-based sales? (Choose two.)
A. How stakeholders receive information and what information they want to receive.
B. What information is communicated to stakeholders in a timely fashion.
C. The stakeholder influencers, decision makers, and participating individuals throughout the process.
D. The degree of affinity stakeholders have related to risk.
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 9
There are approximately nineteen industry verticals. Which five are relevant to Cisco? (Choose five.)
A. Connected Learning
B. Connected Buildings
C. Connected Public Safety
D. Health Care
E. Disaster Management
F. Connected City
G. Connected Utilities
H. Connected Factory
Correct Answer: CDFGH


QUESTION 10
On which two business maturity levels do Cisco Business Architects operate?
A. Business Engagement
B. Technology Solutions
C. Business Transformation
D. Technology Specific
E. Business Solutions
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 11
Which two functions of the technology specialists in a Cisco Business Architecture engagement are true? (Choose
two.)
A. Own the customer relationship.
B. Focus on specific technical solutions.
C. Define business capabilities.
D. Support the engagement that is led by the business architect.
E. Identify customer business priorities.
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 12
Which three options are customer motivators? (Choose three.)
A. Achievable Business plan.
B. Shared risks with the vendor.
C. Increased services and solutions.
D. Realizable outcomes.
E. Simplify IT complexity.
Correct Answer: BDE

 

QUESTION 13
Which solution enables business outcomes in the healthcare industry?
A. Multilayer Switching
B. Medianet
C. Collaboration
D. Advanced Routing
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Which two statements about prefixes in a routing table are true? (Choose two.)
A. The router prefers longer prefixes over shorter prefixes.
B. The router prefers prefixes that have more bit positions for the host than for the network.
C. The router prefers the prefix that includes the most 1 bits in the subnet mask.
D. The router prefers shorter prefixes over longer prefixes.
E. The router prefers the prefix that includes the most 0 bits in the subnet mask.
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 2
Which statement about port security is true?
A. It is not supported on private VLANs.
B. It can be configured on SPAN destination ports.
C. The default port security configuration allows for a maximum of 10 MAC addresses.
D. In sticky mode, the port retains dynamically-learned addresses during a link failure.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
Which Layer 1 devices can be used to enlarge the area covered by a single LAN segment? (Choose two.)
A. switch
B. router
C. NIC
D. hub
E. repeater
F. RJ-45 transceiver
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 4
Lab Simulation – OSPFpass4itsure 100-105 exam question q4

The necessary networking has been completed at each location, and the routers have been configured with single area
OSPF as the routing protocol. The Boston router was recently installed but connectivity is not complete because of
incomplete routing tables. Identify and correct any problem you see in the configuration.
Note: The OSPF process must be configured to allow interfaces in specific subnets to participate in the routing process.
Correct Answer:
The question mentioned Boston router was not configured correctly or incomplete so we should check this router first.
Click on Host B to access the command line interface (CLI) of Boston router.
Boston>enable (type cisco as its password here) Boston#show running-config
Boston# show running-config

!
router ospf 2
log-adjacency-changes
network 192.168.4.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
network 192.168.155.0 0.0.0.3 area 0 !
First, remember that the current OSPF Process ID is 2 because we will need it for later configuration. Next notice that in
the second “network” command the network and wildcard mask are 192.168.155.0 and 0.0.0.3 which is equivalent to
192.168.155.0 255.255.255.252 in term of subnet mask. Therefore this subnetwork\\’s range is from 192.168.155.0 to
192.168.155.3 but the ip address of s0/0 interface of Boston router is192.168.155.5 which don\\’t belong to this range ->
this is the reason why OSPF did not recognize s0 interface of Boston router as a part of area 0. So we need to find a
subnetwork that s0 interface belongs to. IP address of S0 interface: 192.168.155.5/30 Subnet mask: /30 = 1111
1111.1111 1111.1111 1111.1111 1100 Increment: 4 Network address (which IP address of s0 interface belongs to):
192.168.155.4 (because 4 * 1 = 4
Boston(config-router)#no network 192.168.155.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
Boston(config-router)#network 192.168.155.4 0.0.0.3 area 0
Boston(config-router)#end
Boston#copy running-config startup-config
Finally, you should issue a ping command from Boston router to Lancaster router to make sure it works well.
Boston#ping 192.168.43.1

 

QUESTION 5
Drag and Drop Question
Drag and drop the MAC address types from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right?
Select and Place:pass4itsure 100-105 exam question q5

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 100-105 exam question q5-1

 

QUESTION 6
Why does a host use a DNS server?
A. To make a DNS client request to server
B. To resolve IP to FQDN
C. To resolve FQDN to IP
D. To assign IP
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
Which statement describes the effect of the overload keyword in the ip nat inside source list 90 interface ethernet 0/0
overload command?
A. Addresses that match access list inside are translated to the IP address of the Ethernet 0/0 interface.
B. Hosts that match access list inside are translated to an address in the Ethernet 0/0 network.
C. Hosts on the Ethernet 0/0 LAN are translated to the address pool in access list 90.
D. Addresses that match access list 90 are translated through PAT to the IP address of the Ethernet 0/0 interface.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
Which header field is new in IPv6?
A. Hop Limit
B. Flow Label
C. Version
D. Traffic Class
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.pass4itsure 100-105 exam question q9

An administrator cannot connect from R1 to R2. To troubleshoot this problem, the administrator has entered the
command shown in the exhibit. Based on the output shown, what could be the problem?
A. The serial interface is configured for the wrong frame size.
B. The serial interface does not have a cable attached.
C. The serial interface has the wrong type of cable attached.
D. The serial interface has a full buffer.
E. The serial interface is configured for half duplex.
Correct Answer: C
Since the output is not forthcoming it shows that the type of cable attached is wrong, though the cable is connected
since it shows the cable type. According to the figure DTE cable should connect to R1 on interface but while examining
using show controllers serial 0/0 command it showing that a DCE is connected so the wrong type of cable is being
used.

 

QUESTION 10
Which characteristics are representative of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose three.)
A. provides common view of entire topology
B. exchanges routing tables with neighbors
C. calculates shortest path
D. utilizes event-triggered updates
E. utilizes frequent periodic updates
Correct Answer: ACD
Each of routers running link-state routing protocol learns paths to all the destinations in its “area” so we can say
although it is a bit unclear. Link-state routing protocols generate routing updates only (not the whole routing table) when
a change occurs in the network topology so Link-state routing protocol like OSPF uses Dijkstra algorithm to calculate
the shortest path -> . Unlike Distance vector routing protocol (which utilizes frequent periodic updates), link-state routing
protocol utilizes event-triggered updates (only sends update when a change occurs) ->

 

QUESTION 11
Which statement describes the effect of the exec-timeout 30 command?
A. The router maintains a user session indefinitely after it is active for 30 seconds.
B. The router disconnects the user session if it is inactive for 30 minutes.
C. The router maintains a user session indefinitely after it is active for 30 minutes.
D. The router disconnects a user session if it is inactive for 30 seconds.
Correct Answer: B
The “exec-timeout” command is used to configure the inactive session timeout on the console port or the virtual
terminal. The syntax of this command is:
exec-timeout minutes [seconds]
Therefore we need to use the “exec-timeout 30” command to set the user inactivity timer to 30 minutes. To set the user
inactivity timer to 30 seconds we use the “exec-timeout 0 30”.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/m/en_us/techdoc/dc/reference/cli/nxos/commands/fund/exec-timeout.html

 

QUESTION 12
Which command is used to build DHCP pool?
A. ip dhcp conflict
B. ip dhcp-server pool DHCP
C. ip dhcp pool DHCP
D. ip dhcp-client pool DHCP
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 13
What does a host on an Ethernet network do when it is creating a frame and it does not have the destination address?
A. drops the frame
B. sends out a Layer 3 broadcast message
C. sends a message to the router requesting the address
D. sends out an ARP request with the destination IP address
Correct Answer: D
Understanding this concept is prime for understanding that when switch receives the data frame from the host not
having the MAC address already in the MAC table, it will add the MAC address to the source port on the MAC address
table and sends the data frame. If the switch already has the MAC address in its table for the destination, it will forward
the frame directly to the destination port. If it was not already in its MAC table, then they frame would have been flooded
out all ports except for the port that it came from.

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QUESTION 1
When the Cisco UCS Manager is used to verify the B- or C-Series device, which two types of Overall Status are
acceptable and do not indicate a failure? (Choose two.)
A. Online
B. OK
C. Unassociated
D. Active
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 2
Which Cisco NX-OS command displays kernel uptime?
A. show module
B. show version
C. show license
D. show boot
E. show interface
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
If the Overall Status for a Cisco UCS B-Series Blade Server indicates a failure in the Cisco UCS Manager, such as
discovery-failed, which statement is true?
A. The server shuts down.
B. The server automatically reboots reboot in 3 minutes.
C. The endpoints on that server cannot be upgraded.
D. The server is online, but the administrator cannot assign a service profile to that blade.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.pass4itsure 0101-151 exam question q4

Where is the best place to see the power supply status of the blade server enclosure?
A. A – Chassis 1
B. B – Chassis 1 – PSUs
C. C – Chassis1 – Servers
D. D – Rack-Mounts – Servers
E. E – Fabric Interconnects A – PSUs
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.pass4itsure 010-151 exam question q5

Which statement correctly identifies the front panel LEDs on the Cisco UCS C220 Server?
A. A is power button and power status LED; B is identification button and LED; C is system status LED; D is network link
activity LED.
B. A is network link activity LED; B is system status LED; C is power button and power status LED; D is identification
button and LED.
C. A is system status LED; B is network link activity LED; C is power button and power status LED; D is identification
button and LED.
D. A is network link activity LED; B is system status LED; C is identification button and LED; D is power button and
power status LED.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
What is the maximum number of supervisor modules that the Cisco MDS 9710 Switch supports?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
E. 8
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
When a host firmware package policy is created, what must it be associated with to upgrade the BIOS?
A. blade or blade pool
B. service profile
C. boot policy
D. service template
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
How many 10GBASE-T port licenses are preinstalled on a Cisco Nexus 3064-32T?
A. 16
B. 32
C. 48
D. 64
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.pass4itsure 010-151 exam question q9

Where is the best place to see whether the system is ready for a Fabric Interconnect failover?
A. A – Overall Status operable
B. B – L1 Connection
C. C – Part Details
D. D – Access
E. E – High Availability Details
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 10
Which type of optics module is supported by a 12-port 100 GE Cisco Nexus 7700 F3 Series I/O module?
A. CPAK
B. QSFP+
C. SFP/SFP+
D. CFP
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
Which important feature on the front end is provided to the clients by multiple servers that access the same storage
devices across the SAN?
A. recovery
B. redundancy
C. resiliency
D. security
E. storage
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.pass4itsure 010-151 exam question q12

What is the name of this rack-mount server?
A. Cisco UCS C220 Rack-Mount Server
B. Cisco UCS C240 Rack-Mount Server
C. Cisco UCS C420 Rack-Mount Server
D. Cisco UCS C460 Rack-Mount Server
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 13
Which three steps do you perform to troubleshoot when a rack server powers on with no video? (Choose three.)
A. Check that the front I/O dongle is properly seated.
B. Check the front I/O cable connection to the motherboard.
C. Check for memory subsystem failure.
D. Verify the power source to equipment.
E. Reseat the DIMMs, CPU, and PCI cards.
Correct Answer: ABC

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QUESTION 1
You find this query being used in your Oracle 12c database:
pass4itsure 1z0-062 question
Which method a used by the optimizer to limit the rows being returned?
A. A filter is added to the table query dynamically using ROWNUM to limit the rows to 20 percent of the total rows
B. All the rows are returned to the client or middle tier but only the first 20 percent are returned to the screen or the
application.
C. A view is created during execution and a filter on the view limits the rows to 20 percent of the total rows.
D. A TOP-N query is created to limit the rows to 20 percent of the total rows
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 2
You notice a performance change in your production Oracle 12c database. You want to know which change caused this
performance difference. Which method or feature should you use?
A. Compare Period ADDM report
B. AWR Compare Period report
C. Active Session History (ASH) report
D. Taking a new snapshot and comparing it with a preserved snapshot
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The awrddrpt.sql report is the Automated Workload Repository Compare Period Report. The awrddrpt.sql script is
located in the $ORACLE_HOME/rdbms/admin
directory.
Inco

QUESTION 3
You want to capture column group usage and gather extended statistics for better cardinality estimates for theCUSTOMERS table in the SH schema.
Examine the following steps:
1.
Issue the SELECT DBMS_STATS.CREATE_EXTENDED_STATS (`SH\’, `CUSTOMERS\’) FROM dual statement.
2.
Execute the DBMS_STATS.SEED_COL_USAGE (null, `SH\’, 500) procedure.
3.
Execute the required queries on the CUSTOMERS table.
4.
Issue the SELECT DBMS_STATS.REPORT_COL_USAGE (`SH\’, `CUSTOMERS\’) FROM dual statement.
Identify the correct sequence of steps.
A. 3, 2, 1, 4
B. 2, 3, 4, 1
C. 4, 1, 3, 2
D. 3, 2, 4, 1
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Step 1 (2). Seed column usage Oracle must observe a representative workload, in order to determine the appropriate
column groups. Using the new procedure DBMS_STATS.SEED_COL_USAGE,

QUESTION 4
Oracle Grid Infrastructure for a stand-alone server is installed on your production host before installing the Oracle
Database server. The database and listener are
configured by using Oracle Restart.
Examine the following command and its output:
$ crsctl config has
CRS-4622: Oracle High Availability Services auto start is enabled.
What does this imply?
A. When you start an instance on a high with SQL *Plus dependent listeners and ASM disk groups are automatically
started. B. When a database instance is started by using the SRVCTL utility and listener startup fails, the instance is still
started.
C. When a database is created by using SQL* Plus, it is automatically added to the Oracle Restart configuration.
D. When you create a database service by modifying the SERVICE_NAMES initialization parameter, it is automatically
added to the Oracle Restart configuration.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
About Startup Dependencies Oracle Restart ensures that Oracle components are started in the proper order, in
accordance with component dependencies. For example, if database files

QUESTION 5
Which three features work together, to allow a SQL statement to have different cursors for the same statement based
on different selectivity ranges?
A. Bind Variable Peeking
B. SQL Plan Baselines
C. Adaptive Cursor Sharing
D. Bind variable used in a SQL statement
E. Literals in a SQL statement
Correct Answer: ACE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* In bind variable peeking (also known as bind peeking), the optimizer looks at the value in a bind variable when the
database performs a hard parse of a statement.
When a

QUESTION 6
Your database is open and the listener LISTNENER is up. You issue the command:
LSNRCTLandgt; RELOAD
What is the effect of reload on sessions that were originally established by listener?
A. Only sessions based on static listener registrations are disconnected.
B. Existing connections are not disconnected; however, they cannot perform any operations until the listener completes
the re-registration of the database instance and service handlers.
C. The sessions are not affected and continue to function normally. D. All the sessions are terminated and active transactions are rolled back.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 7
Examine this command:
SQL andgt; exec DBMS_STATS.SET_TABLE_PREFS (`SH\’, `CUSTOMERS\’, `PUBLISH\’, `false\’);
Which three statements are true about the effect of this command?
A. Statistics collection is not done for the CUSTOMERS table when schema stats are gathered.
B. Statistics collection is not done for the CUSTOMERS table when database stats are gathered.
C. Any existing statistics for the CUSTOMERS table are still available to the optimizer at parse time.
D. Statistics gathered on the CUSTOMERS table when schema stats are gathered are stored as pending statistics.
E. Statistics gathered on the CUSTOMERS table when database stats are gathered are stored as pending statistics.
Correct Answer: CDE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
*
SET_TABLE_PREFS Procedure
This procedure is used to set the statistics preferences of the specified table in the specified schema.
*
Example: Using

QUESTION 8
You upgraded your database from pre-12c to a multitenant container database (CDB) containing pluggable databases
(PDBs).
Examine the query and its output:

Which two tasks must you perform to add users with SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM privilege to the password
file?
A. Assign the appropriate operating system groups to SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, SYSKM. B. Grant SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM privileges to the intended users.
C. Re-create the password file with SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM privilege and the FORCE argument set to No.
D. Re-create the password file with SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM privilege, and FORCE arguments set to Yes.
E. Re-create the password file in the Oracle Database 12c format.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* orapwd
/ You can create a database password file using the password file creation utility, ORAPWD.
The syntax of the ORAPWD command is as follows:
orapwd FI

QUESTION 9
A redaction policy was added to the SAL column of the SCOTT.EMP table:

All users have their default set of system privileges.
For which three situations will data not be redacted?
A. SYS sessions, regardless of the roles that are set in the session
B. SYSTEM sessions, regardless of the roles that are set in the session
C. SCOTT sessions, only if the MGR role is set in the session
D. SCOTT sessions, only if the MGR role is granted to SCOTT
E. SCOTT sessions, because he is the owner of the table
F. SYSTEM session, only if the MGR role is set in the session
Correct Answer: ADF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* SYS_CONTEXT This is a twist on the SYS_CONTEXT function as it does not use USERENV. With this usageSYS_CONTEXT queries the list of the user\’s current default roles and returns

QUESTION 10
Identify three valid options for adding a pluggable database (PDB) to an existing multitenant container database (CDB).
A. Use the CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE statement to create a PDB using the files from the SEED.
B. Use the CREATE DATABASE . . . ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE statement to provision a PDB by copying file
from the SEED.
C. Use the DBMS_PDB package to clone an existing PDB.
D. Use the DBMS_PDB package to plug an Oracle 12c non-CDB database into an existing CDB.
E. Use the DBMS_PDB package to plug an Oracle 11 g Release 2 (11.2.0.3.0) non-CDB database into an existing
CDB.
Correct Answer: ACD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Use the CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE statement to create a pluggable database (PDB). This statement enables
you to perform the following tasks:
*
(A) Create a PDB by us

QUESTION 11
The ORCL database is configured to support shared server mode. You want to ensure that a user connecting remotely
to the database instance has a one-to-one ratio between client and server processes.
Which connection method guarantees that this requirement is met?
A. connecting by using an external naming method
B. connecting by using the easy connect method
C. creating a service in the database by using the dbms_service.create_service procedure and using this service for
creating a local naming serviceandquot;
D. connecting by using the local naming method with the server = dedicated parameter set in the tnsnames.ora file for
the net service
E. connecting by using a directory naming method
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation

QUESTION 12
On your Oracle 12c database, you invoked SQL *Loader to load data into the EMPLOYEES table in the HR schema byissuing the following command: $andgt; sqlldr hr/[email protected] table=employees
Which two statements are true regarding the command?
A. It succeeds with default settings if the EMPLOYEES table belonging to HR is already defined in the database.
B. It fails because no SQL *Loader data file location is specified.
C. It fails if the HR user does not have the CREATE ANY DIRECTORY privilege.
D. It fails because no SQL *Loader control file location is specified.
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Note:
* SQL*Loader is invoked when you specify the sqlldr command and, optionally, parameters that establish session
characteristics.

QUESTION 13
Which task would you recommend before using the Database Upgrade Assistant (DBUA) to upgrade a single-instance
Oracle 11g R2 database to Oracle Database 12c?
A. shutting down the database instance that is being upgraded
B. executing the catctl.pl script to run the upgrade processes in parallel
C. running the Pre-Upgrade Information Tool
D. copying the listener.ora file to the new ORACLE_HOME
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e23633/upgrade.htm#UPGRD12395

QUESTION 14
Which two statements are true about the use of the procedures listed in the v$sysaux_occupants.move_procedure
column?
A. The procedure may be used for some components to relocate component data to the SYSAUX tablespace from its
current tablespace.
B. The procedure may be used for some components to relocate component data from the SYSAUX tablespace to
another tablespace.
C. All the components may be moved into SYSAUX tablespace. D. All the components may be moved from the SYSAUX tablespace.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

QUESTION 15
Which two are prerequisites for performing a flashback transaction?
A. Flashback Database must be enabled.
B. Undo retention guarantee for the database must be configured.
C. EXECUTE privilege on the DBMS_FLASHBACK package must be granted to the user flashing back transaction.
D. Supplemental logging must be enabled.
E. Recycle bin must be enabled for the database.
F. Block change tracking must be enabled tor the database.
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: Oracle Database Advanced Application Developer\’s Guide 11g, Using Oracle Flashback Technology

QUESTION 16
You configure your database Instance to support shared server connections.
Which two memory areas that are part of PGA are stored in SGA instead, for shared server connection?
A. User session data
B. Stack space
C. Private SQL area
D. Location of the runtime area for DML and DDL Statements
E. Location of a part of the runtime area for SELECT statements
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: PGA itself is subdivided. The UGA (User Global Area) contains session state information, in- cluding stuff like
package-level variables, cursor state, etc. Note that, with shar

QUESTION 17
Which three statements are true about SQL plan directives?
A. They are tied to a specific statement or SQL ID.
B. They instruct the maintenance job to collect missing statistics or perform dynamic sampling to generate a more
optimal plan.
C. They are used to gather only missing statistics.
D. They are created for a query expression where statistics are missing or the cardinality estimates by the optimizer are
incorrect.
E. They instruct the optimizer to create only column group statistics.
F. Improve plan accuracy by persisting both compilation and execution statistics in the SYSAUX tablespace.
Correct Answer: BDE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
During SQL execution, if a cardinality misestimate occurs, then the database creates SQL plan directives. During SQL
compilation, the optimizer examines the query corresponding t

QUESTION 18
Examine the parameter for your database instance:
pass4itsure 1z0-062 question
You generated the execution plan for the following query in the plan table and noticed that the nested loop join was
done. After actual execution of the query, you notice that the hash join was done in the execution plan:
pass4itsure 1z0-062 question
Identify the reason why the optimizer chose different execution plans.
A. The optimizer used a dynamic plan for the query.
B. The optimizer chose different plans because automatic dynamic sampling was enabled.
C. The optimizer used re-optimization cardinality feedback for the query. D. The optimizer chose different plan because extended statistics were created for the columns used.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* optimizer_dynamic_sampling OPTIMIZER_DYNAMIC_SAMPLING controls both when the database gathers dynamic
statistics, and the size of the sample that the optimizer uses to gather the

QUESTION 19
Examine the structure of the sales table, which is stored in a locally managed tablespace with Automatic Segment
Space Management (ASSM) enabled.
pass4itsure 1z0-062 question
You want to perform online segment shrink to reclaim fragmented free space below the high water mark.
A. Row movement is enabled.
B. Referential integrity constraints for the table are disabled.
C. No queries are running on this table.
D. Extra disk space equivalent to the size of the segment is available in the tablespace.
E. No pending transaction exists on the table.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 20
Your database supports a DSS workload that involves the execution of complex queries:
Currently, the library cache contains the ideal workload for analysis. You want to analyze some of the queries for an
application that are cached in the library
cache.
What must you do to receive recommendations about the efficient use of indexes and materialized views to improve
query performance?
A. Create a SQL Tuning Set (STS) that contains the queries cached in the library cache and run the SQL TuningAdvisor (STA) on the workload captured in the STS.
B. Run the Automatic Workload Repository Monitor (ADDM).
C. Create an STS that contains the queries cached in the library cache and run the SQL Performance Analyzer (SPA)
on the workload captured in the STS.
D. Create an STS that contains the queries cached in the library cache and run the SQL Access Advisor on the
workload captured in the STS.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
*
SQL Access Advisor is primarily responsible for making schema modification recommendations, such as adding or
dropping indexes and materialized views. SQL Tuning Advisor m

QUESTION 21
In your multitenant container database (CDB) with two pluggable database (PDBs). You want to create a new PDB by
using SQL Developer.
Which statement is true?
A. The CDB must be open.
B. The CDB must be in the mount stage.
C. The CDB must be in the nomount stage.
D. Alt existing PDBs must be closed.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* Creating a PDB Rather than constructing the data dictionary tables that define an empty PDB from scratch, and then
populating its Obj$ and Dependency$ tables, the empty PDB is cr

QUESTION 22
The persistent configuration settings for RMAN have default for all parameters.
Identify four RMAN commands that produce a multi-section backup.
A. BACKUP TABLESPACE SYSTEM SECTION SIZE 100M;
B. BACKUP AS COPY TABLESPACE SYSTEM SECTION SIZE 100M;
C. BACKUP ARCHIVELOG ALL SECTION SIZE 25M; D. BACKUP TABLESPACE andquot;TEMPandquot; SECTION SIZE 10M;
E. BACKUP TABLESPACE andquot;UNDOandquot; INCLUDE CURRENT CONTROLFILE SECTION SIZE 100M;
F. BACKUP SPFILE SECTION SIZE 1M;
G. BACKUP INCREMENTAL LEVEL 0 TABLESPACE SYSAUX SECTION SIZE 100M;
Correct Answer: ABCG
Explanation

QUESTION 23
You are administering a database stored in Automatic Storage Management (ASM). You use RMAN to back up the
database and the MD_BACKUP command to back up the ASM metadata regularly. You lost an ASM disk group DG1
due to hardware failure.
In which three ways can you re-create the lost disk group and restore the data?
A. Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore metadata for an existing disk group by passing the existing disk group
name as an input parameter and use RMAN to restore the data.
B. Use the MKDG command to restore the disk group with the same configuration as the backed-up disk group and data
on the disk group.
C. Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore the disk group with the changed disk group specification, failure group
specification, name, and other attributes and use RMAN to restore the data.
D. Use the MKDG command to restore the disk group with the same configuration as the backed-up disk group name
and same set of disks and failure group configuration, and use RMAN to restore the data.
E. Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore both the metadata and data for the failed disk group.
F. Use the MKDG command to add a new disk group DG1 with the same or different specifications for failure group and
other attributes and use RMAN to restore the data.
Correct Answer: ACF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
AC (not E):
The md_restore command allows you to restore a disk group from the metadata created by the md_backup command.
md_restore can\’t restore data, only metada

QUESTION 24
You executed a DROP USER CASCADE on an Oracle 11g release 1 database and immediately realized that you forgot
to copy the OCA.EXAM_RESULTS table to the OCP schema.
The RECYCLE_BIN enabled before the DROP USER was executed and the OCP user has been granted the
FLASHBACK ANY TABLE system privilege. What is the quickest way to recover the contents of the OCA.EXAM_RESULTS table to the OCP schema?
A. Execute FLASHBACK TABLE OCA.EXAM_RESULTS TO BEFORE DROP RENAME TO OCP.EXAM_RESULTS;
connected as SYSTEM.
B. Recover the table using traditional Tablespace Point In Time Recovery.
C. Recover the table using Automated Tablespace Point In Time Recovery.
D. Recovery the table using Database Point In Time Recovery.
E. Execute FLASHBACK TABLE OCA.EXAM_RESULTS TO BEFORE DROP RENAME TO EXAM_RESULTS;
connected as the OCP user.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
RMAN tablespace point-in-time recovery (TSPITR).
Recovery Manager (RMAN) TSPITR enables quick recovery of one or more tablespaces in a database to an earlier time
without af

QUESTION 25
Your multitenant container database (CDB) contains a pluggable database, HR_PDB. The default permanent
tablespace in HR_PDB is USERDATA. The container database (CDB) is open and you connect RMAN.
You want to issue the following RMAN command:
RMAN andgt; BACKUP TABLESPACE hr_pdb:userdata;
Which task should you perform before issuing the command?
A. Place the root container in ARHCHIVELOG mode.
B. Take the user data tablespace offline.
C. Place the root container in the nomount stage.
D. Ensure that HR_PDB is open.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 26
You execute the following PL/SQL: Which two statements are true?
pass4itsure 1z0-062 question
A. Fine-Grained Auditing (FGA) is enabled for the PRICE column in the PRODUCTS table for SELECT statements only
when a row with PRICE andgt; 10000 is accessed.
B. FGA is enabled for the PRODUCTS.PRICE column and an audit record is written whenever a row with PRICE andgt;
10000 is accessed.
C. FGA is enabled for all DML operations by JIM on the PRODUCTS.PRICE column.
D. FGA is enabled for the PRICE column of the PRODUCTS table and the SQL statements is captured in the FGA audit
trial.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
DBMS_FGA.add_policy
*
The DBMS_FGA package provides fine-grained security functions.
*
ADD_POLICY Procedure
This procedure creates an audit poli

QUESTION 27
You notice a performance change in your production Oracle database and you want to know which change has made
this performance difference.
You generate the Compare Period Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) report to further investigation.
Which three findings would you get from the report?
A. It detects any configuration change that caused a performance difference in both time periods.
B. It identifies any workload change that caused a performance difference in both time periods.
C. It detects the top wait events causing performance degradation.
D. It shows the resource usage for CPU, memory, and I/O in both time periods. E. It shows the difference in the size of memory pools in both time periods.
F. It gives information about statistics collection in both time periods.
Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Keyword: shows the difference.
*
Full ADDM analysis across two AWR snapshot periods Detects causes, measure effects, then correlates them Causes:
workload changes,

QUESTION 28
To enable the Database Smart Flash Cache, you configure the following parameters: DB_FLASH_CACHE_FILE =
`/dev/flash_device_1\’ , `/dev/flash_device_2\’ DB_FLASH_CACHE_SIZE=64G
What is the result when you start up the database instance?
A. It results in an error because these parameter settings are invalid.
B. One 64G flash cache file will be used.
C. Two 64G flash cache files will be used.
D. Two 32G flash cache files will be used.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 29
You performed an incremental level 0 backup of a database:
RMAN andgt; BACKUP INCREMENTAL LEVEL 0 DATABASE;
To enable block change tracking after the incremental level 0 backup, you issued this command:
SQL andgt; ALTER DATABASE ENABLE BLOCK CHANGE TRACKING USING FILE ` /mydir/rman_change_track.f\’;
To perform an incremental level 1 cumulative backup, you issued this command:
RMANandgt; BACKUP INCREMENTAL LEVEL 1 CUMULATIVE DATABASE;
Which three statements are true?
A. Backup change tracking will sometimes reduce I/O performed during cumulative incremental backups.
B. The change tracking file must always be backed up when you perform a full database backup.
C. Block change tracking will always reduce I/O performed during cumulative incremental backups. D. More than one database block may be read by an incremental backup for a change made to a single block.
E. The incremental level 1 backup that immediately follows the enabling of block change tracking will not read the
change tracking file to discover changed blocks.
Correct Answer: ADE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: In a cumulative level 1 backup, RMAN backs up all the blocks used since the most recent level 0 incremental
backup.
E: Oracle Block Change Tracking Once enabled; this n

QUESTION 30
You are administering a database and you receive a requirement to apply the following restrictions:
1.
A connection must be terminated after four unsuccessful login attempts by user.
2.
A user should not be able to create more than four simultaneous sessions.
3.
User session must be terminated after 15 minutes of inactivity.
4.
Users must be prompted to change their passwords every 15 days. How would you accomplish these requirements?
A. by granting a secure application role to the users
B. by creating and assigning a profile to the users and setting the REMOTE_OS_AUTHENT parameter to FALSE
C. By creating and assigning a profile to the users and setting the SEC_MAX_FAILED_LOGIN_ATTEMPTS parameter
to 4
D. By Implementing Fine-Grained Auditing (FGA) and setting the REMOTE_LOGIN_PASSWORD_FILE parameter to
NONE.
E. By implementing the database resource Manager plan and setting the SEC_MAX_FAILED_LOGIN_ATTEMPTS
parameters to 4.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
You can design your applications to automatically grant a role to the user who is trying to log in, provided the user meets
criteria that you specify. To do so, you create a

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QUESTION 1
Which Oracle Database component is audited by default if the Unified Auditing option is enabled?
A. Oracle Data Pump
B. Oracle Recovery Manager (RMAN)
C. Oracle Label Security
D. Oracle Database Vault
E. Oracle Real Application Security
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You are administering a multitenant container database (CDB) cdb1 that is running in archivelog mode and contains
pluggable databases (PDBs), pdb_i and
pdb_2.
While opening pdb_1, you get an error:
SQLandgt; alter pluggable database pdb_1 open;
ORA-011S7:cannotidentify/lockdatafile11-seeDBWRtracefile
ORA-01110:data file 11:\’/u01/app/oracle/oradata/cdb1/pcb_1/example01.dbf\’
To repair the failure, you open an RMAN session for the target database CDBSROOT. You execute the following as the
first command:
RMANandgt;REPAIRFAILURE;
Which statement describes the consequence of the command?
A. The command performs the recovery and closes the failure.
B. The command produces an error because RMAN is not connected to the target database pdb_1.
C. The command produces an error because the advise failure command was not executed before the
REPAIRFAILUER command.
D. The command executes successfully, performs recovery, and opens PDB_1.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Your multitenant container database (CDB) cdb1 that is running in archivelog mode contains two pluggable databases
(PDBs), pdb2_1 and pdb2_2, both of which
are open. RMAN is connected to the target database pdb2_1. RMANandgt; BACKUP DATABASE PLUS ARCHIVELOG DELETE INPUT;
Which statement is true about the execution of this command to back up the database?
A. All data files belonging to pdb2_1 are backed up and all archive log files are deleted.
B. All data files belonging to pdb2_1 are backed up along with the archive log files.
C. Only the data files belonging to pdb2_ are backed up.
D. This command gives an error because archive log files can be backed up only when RMAN is connected to the root
database.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You are administering a multitenant container database (CDB) cdb1.
Examine the command and its output:
SQLandgt;show parameterfile
NAMETYPEVALUE
———————————————————————– db_create_file_deststring db_file_name_convertstring
db_filesinteger200
You verify that sufficient disk space is available and that no file currently exists in the `/u0l/app/oracle/
oradata/cdb1/salesdb\’ location.
You plan to create a new pluggable database (PDB) by using the command:
SQLandgt;CREATEPLUGGABLEDATABASESALESPDB
ADMINUSERsalesadmIDENTIFIED 3Y password
ROLES=(dba)
DEFAULTTABLESPACEsales
DATAFILE\’ /u01/app/oracle/oradata/cdb1/salesdb/sales01 .dbf\’SIZE 250M AUTOEXTEND ON
FILE_NAME_CONVERT=(`/u01/app/oracle/oradata/cdb1/
pdbseed/\’, \’/u01/app/oracle/oradata/cdb1/ salesdb/\’)
STORAGE(MAXSIZE2G)
PATK_PREFIX=\’/u01/app/oracle/oradata/cdb1/SALESPDB\’;
Which statement is true?
A. SALESPDB is created and is in mount state.
B. PDB creation fails because the D3_file_name_convert parameter is not set in the CDB. C. SALESPDB is created and is in read/write mode.
D. PDB creation fails because a default temporary tablespace is not defined for SALESPDB.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Your database supports a Decision Support System (DSS) workload that involves the execution of complex queries.
Currently, the database is running with peak workload. You want to analyze some of the most resource-intensive
statements cached in the library cache.
What must you run to receive recommendations on the efficient use of indexes and materialized views to improve query
performance?
A. SQL Performance Analyzer
B. SQL Access Advisor
C. SQL Tuning Advisor
D. Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) report
E. Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which statement is true about the loss or damage of a temp file that belongs to the temporary tablespace of a pluggable
database (PDB)?
A. The PDB is closed and the temp file is re-created automatically when the PDB is opened.
B. The PDB is closed and requires media recovery at the PDB level.
C. The PDB does not close and the temp file is re-created automatically whenever the container database (CDB) is
opened.
D. The PDB does not close and starts by using the default temporary tablespace defined for the CD
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which parameter must be set to which value to implement automatic PGA memory management?
A. Set memory_target to zero.
B. Set STATISTICS_LEVEL to BASIC.
C. Set pga_aggregate_target to a nonzero value.
D. Set pga_aggregate_target and sga_target to the same value.
E. Set sgajtarget to zero.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
What can be automatically implemented after the SQL Tuning Advisor is run as part of the Automated Maintenance
Task?
A. statistics recommendations
B. SQL profile recommendations
C. SQL statement restructure recommendations
D. creation of materialized views to improve query performance
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
You are required to migrate your 11.2.0.3 database to an Oracle 12c database.
Examine the list of steps that might be used to accomplish this task:
1.Place all user-defined tablespaces in read-only mode on the source database. 2.Use the RMAN convert command to
convert data files to the target platform\’s
endian format, if required. 3.Perform a full transportable export on the source database with the parameters
VERSI0N=I2, TRANSPORTABLE=ALWAYS, and
FULL=Y.
4.
Transport the data files for all the user-defined tablespaces.
5.
Transport the export dump file to the target database.
6.Perform an import on the target database by using the full, network_link, and transportable_datafiles parameters.
7.Perform an import on the target database by using the full and transportable_datafiles parameters.
Identify the required steps in the correct order.
A. 1, 3, 5, 4, 2, and 6
B. 1, 2, 4, 6, 5, 3, and 7
C. 1, 2,4, and 7
D. 2, 4, 5, 6, and 7
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You are administering a database that supports data warehousing workload and Is running in noarchivelog mode. You
use RMAN to perform a level 0 backup on
Sundays and level 1 Incremental backups on all the other days of the week.
One of the data files is corrupted and the current online redo log file is lost because of a media failure.
You want to recover the data file.
Examine the steps involved in the recovery process:
1.Shut down the database instance.
2.Start up the database instance in nomount state.
3.Mount the database.
4.Take the data file offline.
5.Put the data file online.
6.Restore the control file.
7.Restore the database.
8.Restore the data file.
9.Open the database with the resetlog option.
10.Recover the database with the noredo option.
11.Recover the data file with the noredo option.
Identify the required steps in the correct order.
A. 4, 8, 11, 5
B. 1, 3, 8, 11, 9
C. 1, 2, 6, 3, 7, 10, 9
D. 1, 3, 7, 10, 9
E. 1, 2, 6, 3, 8, 11, 9
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
You want to reduce fragmentation and reclaim unused space for the sales table but not its dependent objects. During
this operation, you want to ensure the following:
A. Long-running queries are not affected. ii.No extra space is used. iii.Data manipulation language (DML) operations on
the table succeed at all times throughout theprocess. iv.Unused space is reclaimed both above and below the high
water mark. Which alter TABLE option would you recommend?
B. DEALLOCATE UNUSED C. SHRINK SPACE CASCADE
D. SHRINK SPACE COMPACT
E. ROW STORE COMPRESS BASIC
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which two statements are true regarding the Oracle Data Pump export and import operations?
A. You cannot export data from a remote database.
B. You can rename tables during import.
C. You can overwrite existing dump files during export.
D. You can compress data but not metadata during export.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 13
Identify three scenarios in which RMAN will use backup sets to perform active database duplication.
A. when the duplicate … from active database command contains the section size clause
B. when you perform active database duplication on a database with flashback disabled
C. when you specify set encryption before the duplicate … from active database command
D. when the number of auxiliary channels allocated is equal to or greater than the number of target channels
E. when you perform active database duplication on a database that has read-onlytablespaces
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 14
You want RMAN to make duplicate copies of data files when using the backup command. What must you set using the
RMAN configure command to achieve this?
A. MAXSETSIZE TO 2;
B. DEVICE TYPE DISK PARALLELISM 2 BACKUP TYPE TO BACKUPSET;
C. CHANNEL DEVICE TYPE DISK FORMAT \’/disk1/%U\’ , \’/disk2/%U\’;
D. DATAFILE BACKUP COPIES FOR DEVICE TYPE DISK TO 2;
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Examine the steps to configure Oracle Secure Backup (OSB) for use with RMAN: 1.Create media families for data files and archived redo log files. 2.Configure database backup storage selectors or
RMAN media management parameters.
3.Create an OSB user preauthorized for RMAN operations.
4.Configure RMAN Access to the OSB SBT.
5.Disable Non-Uniform Memory Access (NUMA) awareness by setting the ob_ignore_numa parameter to 0.
Identify the steps in the correct order.
A. 1, 4, 3, 2, 5
B. 1, 3, 4, 5, 2
C. 4, 3, 1, 2, 5
D. 4, 3, 5, 1, 2
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which two statements are true about the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR)?
A. The ADR base is shared across multiple instances.
B. The ADR base keeps all diagnostic information in binary format.
C. The ADR can be used to store statspack snapshots to diagnose database performance issues.
D. The ADR can be used for problem diagnosis even when the database instance is down.
E. The ADR is used to store Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshots.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 17
You execute the RMAN commands:
RMANandgt; BACKUP VALIDATE DATABASE; RMANandgt; RECOVER CORRUPTION LIST; Which task is performed
by these commands?
A. Corrupted blocks, if any, are repaired in the backup created.
B. Only those data files that have corrupted blocks are backed up.
C. Corrupted blocks in the data files are checked and repaired before performing the database backup.
D. The database is checked for physically corrupt blocks and any corrupted blocks are repaired.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
You are administering a multitenant container database (CDB) that contains multiple pluggable databases (PDBs). Youare connected to cdb$root as the sys user.
You execute the commands:
SQLandgt; CREATE USER C##ADMIN IDENTIFIED BY orcll23;
SQLandgt; CREATE ROLE C##CONNECT;
SQLandgt; GRANT CREATE SESSION, CREATE TABLE, SELECT ANY TABLE TO C##CONNECT; SQLandgt;
GRANT C##CONNECT to C##ADMIN CONTAINER=ALL;
Which statement is true about the c##connect role?
A. It is created only in cdb$root and cannot be granted to the c##admin user with the container=all clause.
B. It is granted to the c##admin user only in the CDB.
C. It is granted to the c##admin user in all PDBs and can be granted only to a local user in a PDB.
D. It is granted to the c##admin user in all PDBs and can be granted object and system privileges for a PDB.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
A telecom company wishes to generate monthly bills to include details of customer calls, listed in order of time of call.
Which table organization allows for generating the bills with minimum degree of row sorting?
A. a hash cluster
B. an index cluster
C. a partitioned table
D. a sorted hash cluster
E. a heap table with a rowid column
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
You want to back up a database such that only formatted blocks are backed up. Which statement is true about this
backup operation?
A. The backup must be performed in mount state.
B. The tablespace must be taken offline.
C. All files must be backed up as backup sets.
D. The database must be backed up as an image copy.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
You want to consolidate databases for the CRM, ERP, and SCM applications by migrating them to pluggable databases
(PDBs).
You have already created a test system to support the consolidation of databases in a multitenant container database
(CDB) that has multiple PDBs.
What is the easiest way to perform capacity planning for consolidation?
A. capturing the most resource-intensive SQL statements in a SQL Tuning Set on the production system and using the
SQL Performance Analyzer on the test system
B. capturing the workload on the production system and replaying the workload for one PDB at a time on the test
system
C. capturing the workload on the production system and using Consolidated Database Replay to replay the workload of
all production systems simultaneously for all PDBs
D. capturing the most resource-intensive SQL statements in a SQL Tuning Set on the production system and using the
SQL Tuning Advisor on the test system
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Which three statements are true about a job chain?
A. It can contain a nested chain of jobs.
B. It can be used to implement dependency-based scheduling.
C. It cannot invoke the same program or nested chain in multiple steps in the chain.
D. It cannot have more than one dependency.
E. It can be executed using event-based or time-based schedules.
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 23
You want to move your existing recovery catalog to another database.
Examine the steps:
1)Export the catalog data by using the Data Pump Export utility in the source database.
2) Create a recovery catalog user and grant the necessary privileges in the target database.
3) Create a recovery catalog by using the create catalog command.
4)Import the catalog data into the new recovery catalog by using the Data Pump Import utility in the target database.
5)Import the source recovery catalog schema by using the import catalog command.
6)Connect to the destination database.
7) Connect as catalog to the destination recovery catalog schema. Identify the option with the correct sequence for moving the recovery catalog.
A. 1, 6, 4
B. 2, 3, 7, 5
C. 1, 2, 6, 4
D. 1, 2, 3, 6, 5
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
You are administering a multitenant container database (CDB).
Identify two ways to access a pluggable database (PDB) that is open in read-only mode.
A. by using the connect statement as a local user having only the set container privilege
B. by using easy connect
C. by using external authentication
D. as a common user with the set container privilege
E. by executing the alter session set container command as a local user
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 25
You issue the RMAN commands:
RMANandgt; CONFIGURE DEFAULT DEVICE TYPE TO disk;
RKANandgt; CONFIGURE DEVICE TYPE DISK BACKUP TYPE TO COPY;
RMANandgt;CONFIGURE CONTROLFILE AUTOBACKUP ON;
RMANandgt; BACKUP DATABASE PLUS ARCHIVELOG DELETE INPUT;
Which three tasks are performed by the BACKUP DATABASE command?
A. switching the online redo log file
B. backing up all data files as image copies and archive log files, and deleting those archive log files
C. backing up only the used blocks in the data files
D. backing up all used and unused blocks in the data files
E. backing up all archived log files and marking them as obsolete
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 26
The following parameters are set for your Oracle 12c database instance:
OPTIMIZER_CAPTURE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINES=FALSE
OPTIMIZER_USE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINES=TRUE
You want to manage the SQL plan evolution task manually. Examine the following steps:
1.Set the evolve task parameters.
2.Create the evolve task by using the DBMS_SPM.CREATE_EVOVLE_TASK function.
3.Implement the recommendations in the task by using the
DBMS_SPM.IMPLEMENT_EVOLVE_TASK function.
4.Execute the evolve task by using the DBMS_SPM.EXECUTE_EVOLVE_TASK function. 5.Report the task outcome by
using the
DBMS_SPM.REPORT_EVOLVE_TASK function.
Identify the correct sequence of steps.
A. 2, 4, 5
B. 2, 1, 4, 3, 5
C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
D. 1, 2, 4, 5
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
user_data is a nonencryptedtablespace containing tables with data.
You must encrypt ail data in this tablespace.
Which three methods can do this?
A. Use Data Pump.
B. Use ALTERTABLE. . .MOVE
C. Use CREATE TABLE AS SELECT
D. Use alter tablespace to encrypt the tablespace after enabling row movement on all its
E. Use altertablespace to encrypt the tablespace.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 28
Your database is running in archivelog mode and regular nightly backups are taken. Due to a media failure, the current
online redo log group, which has one member, is lost and the instance is aborted.
Examine the steps to recover the online redo log group and move it to a new location.
1.Restore the corrupted redo log group.
2.Restore the database from the most recent database backup.
3.Perform an incomplete recovery.
4.Relocate the member of the damaged online redo log group to a new location.
5.Open the database with the resetlogs option.
6. Issue a checkpoint and clear the log. Identify the required steps in the correct order.
A. 1, 3, 4, 5
B. 6, 3, 4, 5
C. 2, 3, 4, 5
D. 6, 4, 3, 5
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 29
You have a production Oracle 12c database running on a host.
You want to install and create databases across multiple new machines that do not have any Oracle database software
installed. You also want the new
databases to have the same directory structure and components as your existing 12c database.
The steps in random order:
1.Create directory structures similar to the production database on all new machines. 2.Create a response file for Oracle
Universal Installer (OUI) with the same
configurations as the production database.
3.Create a database clone template for the database.
4.Run the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA) to create the database.
5.Run OUI in graphical mode on each machine.
6.Run OUI in silent mode using the OUI response file.
Identify the required steps in the correct sequence to achieve the requirement with minimal human intervention.
A. 2, 1, 6, and 4
B. 2, 3, and 6
C. 3, 1, 5, and 6 D. 2, 3, 1, and 6
E. 1, 5, and 4
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
In your database, the tbs percent used parameter is set to 60 and the tbs percent free parameter is set to 20.
Which two storage-tiering actions might be automated when using Information Lifecycle Management (ILM) to automate
data movement?
A. The movement of all segments to a target tablespace with a higher degree of compression, on a different storage tier,
when the source tablespace exceeds tbs percent used
B. Setting the target tablespace to read-only after the segments are moved
C. The movement of some segments to a target tablespace with a higher degree of compression, on a different storage
tier, when the source tablespace exceeds T3S percent used
D. Taking the target tablespace offline after the segments are moved
E. The movement of some blocks to a target tablespace with a lower degree of compression, on a different storage tier,
when the source tablespace exceeds tbs percent used
Correct Answer: AB

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