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QUESTION 1
Which Oracle Database component is audited by default if the Unified Auditing option is enabled?
A. Oracle Data Pump
B. Oracle Recovery Manager (RMAN)
C. Oracle Label Security
D. Oracle Database Vault
E. Oracle Real Application Security
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You are administering a multitenant container database (CDB) cdb1 that is running in archivelog mode and contains
pluggable databases (PDBs), pdb_i and
pdb_2.
While opening pdb_1, you get an error:
SQLandgt; alter pluggable database pdb_1 open;
ORA-011S7:cannotidentify/lockdatafile11-seeDBWRtracefile
ORA-01110:data file 11:\’/u01/app/oracle/oradata/cdb1/pcb_1/example01.dbf\’
To repair the failure, you open an RMAN session for the target database CDBSROOT. You execute the following as the
first command:
RMANandgt;REPAIRFAILURE;
Which statement describes the consequence of the command?
A. The command performs the recovery and closes the failure.
B. The command produces an error because RMAN is not connected to the target database pdb_1.
C. The command produces an error because the advise failure command was not executed before the
REPAIRFAILUER command.
D. The command executes successfully, performs recovery, and opens PDB_1.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Your multitenant container database (CDB) cdb1 that is running in archivelog mode contains two pluggable databases
(PDBs), pdb2_1 and pdb2_2, both of which
are open. RMAN is connected to the target database pdb2_1. RMANandgt; BACKUP DATABASE PLUS ARCHIVELOG DELETE INPUT;
Which statement is true about the execution of this command to back up the database?
A. All data files belonging to pdb2_1 are backed up and all archive log files are deleted.
B. All data files belonging to pdb2_1 are backed up along with the archive log files.
C. Only the data files belonging to pdb2_ are backed up.
D. This command gives an error because archive log files can be backed up only when RMAN is connected to the root
database.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You are administering a multitenant container database (CDB) cdb1.
Examine the command and its output:
SQLandgt;show parameterfile
NAMETYPEVALUE
———————————————————————– db_create_file_deststring db_file_name_convertstring
db_filesinteger200
You verify that sufficient disk space is available and that no file currently exists in the `/u0l/app/oracle/
oradata/cdb1/salesdb\’ location.
You plan to create a new pluggable database (PDB) by using the command:
SQLandgt;CREATEPLUGGABLEDATABASESALESPDB
ADMINUSERsalesadmIDENTIFIED 3Y password
ROLES=(dba)
DEFAULTTABLESPACEsales
DATAFILE\’ /u01/app/oracle/oradata/cdb1/salesdb/sales01 .dbf\’SIZE 250M AUTOEXTEND ON
FILE_NAME_CONVERT=(`/u01/app/oracle/oradata/cdb1/
pdbseed/\’, \’/u01/app/oracle/oradata/cdb1/ salesdb/\’)
STORAGE(MAXSIZE2G)
PATK_PREFIX=\’/u01/app/oracle/oradata/cdb1/SALESPDB\’;
Which statement is true?
A. SALESPDB is created and is in mount state.
B. PDB creation fails because the D3_file_name_convert parameter is not set in the CDB. C. SALESPDB is created and is in read/write mode.
D. PDB creation fails because a default temporary tablespace is not defined for SALESPDB.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Your database supports a Decision Support System (DSS) workload that involves the execution of complex queries.
Currently, the database is running with peak workload. You want to analyze some of the most resource-intensive
statements cached in the library cache.
What must you run to receive recommendations on the efficient use of indexes and materialized views to improve query
performance?
A. SQL Performance Analyzer
B. SQL Access Advisor
C. SQL Tuning Advisor
D. Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) report
E. Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which statement is true about the loss or damage of a temp file that belongs to the temporary tablespace of a pluggable
database (PDB)?
A. The PDB is closed and the temp file is re-created automatically when the PDB is opened.
B. The PDB is closed and requires media recovery at the PDB level.
C. The PDB does not close and the temp file is re-created automatically whenever the container database (CDB) is
opened.
D. The PDB does not close and starts by using the default temporary tablespace defined for the CD
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which parameter must be set to which value to implement automatic PGA memory management?
A. Set memory_target to zero.
B. Set STATISTICS_LEVEL to BASIC.
C. Set pga_aggregate_target to a nonzero value.
D. Set pga_aggregate_target and sga_target to the same value.
E. Set sgajtarget to zero.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
What can be automatically implemented after the SQL Tuning Advisor is run as part of the Automated Maintenance
Task?
A. statistics recommendations
B. SQL profile recommendations
C. SQL statement restructure recommendations
D. creation of materialized views to improve query performance
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
You are required to migrate your 11.2.0.3 database to an Oracle 12c database.
Examine the list of steps that might be used to accomplish this task:
1.Place all user-defined tablespaces in read-only mode on the source database. 2.Use the RMAN convert command to
convert data files to the target platform\’s
endian format, if required. 3.Perform a full transportable export on the source database with the parameters
VERSI0N=I2, TRANSPORTABLE=ALWAYS, and
FULL=Y.
4.
Transport the data files for all the user-defined tablespaces.
5.
Transport the export dump file to the target database.
6.Perform an import on the target database by using the full, network_link, and transportable_datafiles parameters.
7.Perform an import on the target database by using the full and transportable_datafiles parameters.
Identify the required steps in the correct order.
A. 1, 3, 5, 4, 2, and 6
B. 1, 2, 4, 6, 5, 3, and 7
C. 1, 2,4, and 7
D. 2, 4, 5, 6, and 7
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You are administering a database that supports data warehousing workload and Is running in noarchivelog mode. You
use RMAN to perform a level 0 backup on
Sundays and level 1 Incremental backups on all the other days of the week.
One of the data files is corrupted and the current online redo log file is lost because of a media failure.
You want to recover the data file.
Examine the steps involved in the recovery process:
1.Shut down the database instance.
2.Start up the database instance in nomount state.
3.Mount the database.
4.Take the data file offline.
5.Put the data file online.
6.Restore the control file.
7.Restore the database.
8.Restore the data file.
9.Open the database with the resetlog option.
10.Recover the database with the noredo option.
11.Recover the data file with the noredo option.
Identify the required steps in the correct order.
A. 4, 8, 11, 5
B. 1, 3, 8, 11, 9
C. 1, 2, 6, 3, 7, 10, 9
D. 1, 3, 7, 10, 9
E. 1, 2, 6, 3, 8, 11, 9
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
You want to reduce fragmentation and reclaim unused space for the sales table but not its dependent objects. During
this operation, you want to ensure the following:
A. Long-running queries are not affected. ii.No extra space is used. iii.Data manipulation language (DML) operations on
the table succeed at all times throughout theprocess. iv.Unused space is reclaimed both above and below the high
water mark. Which alter TABLE option would you recommend?
B. DEALLOCATE UNUSED C. SHRINK SPACE CASCADE
D. SHRINK SPACE COMPACT
E. ROW STORE COMPRESS BASIC
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which two statements are true regarding the Oracle Data Pump export and import operations?
A. You cannot export data from a remote database.
B. You can rename tables during import.
C. You can overwrite existing dump files during export.
D. You can compress data but not metadata during export.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 13
Identify three scenarios in which RMAN will use backup sets to perform active database duplication.
A. when the duplicate … from active database command contains the section size clause
B. when you perform active database duplication on a database with flashback disabled
C. when you specify set encryption before the duplicate … from active database command
D. when the number of auxiliary channels allocated is equal to or greater than the number of target channels
E. when you perform active database duplication on a database that has read-onlytablespaces
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 14
You want RMAN to make duplicate copies of data files when using the backup command. What must you set using the
RMAN configure command to achieve this?
A. MAXSETSIZE TO 2;
B. DEVICE TYPE DISK PARALLELISM 2 BACKUP TYPE TO BACKUPSET;
C. CHANNEL DEVICE TYPE DISK FORMAT \’/disk1/%U\’ , \’/disk2/%U\’;
D. DATAFILE BACKUP COPIES FOR DEVICE TYPE DISK TO 2;
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Examine the steps to configure Oracle Secure Backup (OSB) for use with RMAN: 1.Create media families for data files and archived redo log files. 2.Configure database backup storage selectors or
RMAN media management parameters.
3.Create an OSB user preauthorized for RMAN operations.
4.Configure RMAN Access to the OSB SBT.
5.Disable Non-Uniform Memory Access (NUMA) awareness by setting the ob_ignore_numa parameter to 0.
Identify the steps in the correct order.
A. 1, 4, 3, 2, 5
B. 1, 3, 4, 5, 2
C. 4, 3, 1, 2, 5
D. 4, 3, 5, 1, 2
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which two statements are true about the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR)?
A. The ADR base is shared across multiple instances.
B. The ADR base keeps all diagnostic information in binary format.
C. The ADR can be used to store statspack snapshots to diagnose database performance issues.
D. The ADR can be used for problem diagnosis even when the database instance is down.
E. The ADR is used to store Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshots.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 17
You execute the RMAN commands:
RMANandgt; BACKUP VALIDATE DATABASE; RMANandgt; RECOVER CORRUPTION LIST; Which task is performed
by these commands?
A. Corrupted blocks, if any, are repaired in the backup created.
B. Only those data files that have corrupted blocks are backed up.
C. Corrupted blocks in the data files are checked and repaired before performing the database backup.
D. The database is checked for physically corrupt blocks and any corrupted blocks are repaired.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
You are administering a multitenant container database (CDB) that contains multiple pluggable databases (PDBs). Youare connected to cdb$root as the sys user.
You execute the commands:
SQLandgt; CREATE USER C##ADMIN IDENTIFIED BY orcll23;
SQLandgt; CREATE ROLE C##CONNECT;
SQLandgt; GRANT CREATE SESSION, CREATE TABLE, SELECT ANY TABLE TO C##CONNECT; SQLandgt;
GRANT C##CONNECT to C##ADMIN CONTAINER=ALL;
Which statement is true about the c##connect role?
A. It is created only in cdb$root and cannot be granted to the c##admin user with the container=all clause.
B. It is granted to the c##admin user only in the CDB.
C. It is granted to the c##admin user in all PDBs and can be granted only to a local user in a PDB.
D. It is granted to the c##admin user in all PDBs and can be granted object and system privileges for a PDB.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
A telecom company wishes to generate monthly bills to include details of customer calls, listed in order of time of call.
Which table organization allows for generating the bills with minimum degree of row sorting?
A. a hash cluster
B. an index cluster
C. a partitioned table
D. a sorted hash cluster
E. a heap table with a rowid column
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
You want to back up a database such that only formatted blocks are backed up. Which statement is true about this
backup operation?
A. The backup must be performed in mount state.
B. The tablespace must be taken offline.
C. All files must be backed up as backup sets.
D. The database must be backed up as an image copy.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
You want to consolidate databases for the CRM, ERP, and SCM applications by migrating them to pluggable databases
(PDBs).
You have already created a test system to support the consolidation of databases in a multitenant container database
(CDB) that has multiple PDBs.
What is the easiest way to perform capacity planning for consolidation?
A. capturing the most resource-intensive SQL statements in a SQL Tuning Set on the production system and using the
SQL Performance Analyzer on the test system
B. capturing the workload on the production system and replaying the workload for one PDB at a time on the test
system
C. capturing the workload on the production system and using Consolidated Database Replay to replay the workload of
all production systems simultaneously for all PDBs
D. capturing the most resource-intensive SQL statements in a SQL Tuning Set on the production system and using the
SQL Tuning Advisor on the test system
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Which three statements are true about a job chain?
A. It can contain a nested chain of jobs.
B. It can be used to implement dependency-based scheduling.
C. It cannot invoke the same program or nested chain in multiple steps in the chain.
D. It cannot have more than one dependency.
E. It can be executed using event-based or time-based schedules.
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 23
You want to move your existing recovery catalog to another database.
Examine the steps:
1)Export the catalog data by using the Data Pump Export utility in the source database.
2) Create a recovery catalog user and grant the necessary privileges in the target database.
3) Create a recovery catalog by using the create catalog command.
4)Import the catalog data into the new recovery catalog by using the Data Pump Import utility in the target database.
5)Import the source recovery catalog schema by using the import catalog command.
6)Connect to the destination database.
7) Connect as catalog to the destination recovery catalog schema. Identify the option with the correct sequence for moving the recovery catalog.
A. 1, 6, 4
B. 2, 3, 7, 5
C. 1, 2, 6, 4
D. 1, 2, 3, 6, 5
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
You are administering a multitenant container database (CDB).
Identify two ways to access a pluggable database (PDB) that is open in read-only mode.
A. by using the connect statement as a local user having only the set container privilege
B. by using easy connect
C. by using external authentication
D. as a common user with the set container privilege
E. by executing the alter session set container command as a local user
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 25
You issue the RMAN commands:
RMANandgt; CONFIGURE DEFAULT DEVICE TYPE TO disk;
RKANandgt; CONFIGURE DEVICE TYPE DISK BACKUP TYPE TO COPY;
RMANandgt;CONFIGURE CONTROLFILE AUTOBACKUP ON;
RMANandgt; BACKUP DATABASE PLUS ARCHIVELOG DELETE INPUT;
Which three tasks are performed by the BACKUP DATABASE command?
A. switching the online redo log file
B. backing up all data files as image copies and archive log files, and deleting those archive log files
C. backing up only the used blocks in the data files
D. backing up all used and unused blocks in the data files
E. backing up all archived log files and marking them as obsolete
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 26
The following parameters are set for your Oracle 12c database instance:
OPTIMIZER_CAPTURE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINES=FALSE
OPTIMIZER_USE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINES=TRUE
You want to manage the SQL plan evolution task manually. Examine the following steps:
1.Set the evolve task parameters.
2.Create the evolve task by using the DBMS_SPM.CREATE_EVOVLE_TASK function.
3.Implement the recommendations in the task by using the
DBMS_SPM.IMPLEMENT_EVOLVE_TASK function.
4.Execute the evolve task by using the DBMS_SPM.EXECUTE_EVOLVE_TASK function. 5.Report the task outcome by
using the
DBMS_SPM.REPORT_EVOLVE_TASK function.
Identify the correct sequence of steps.
A. 2, 4, 5
B. 2, 1, 4, 3, 5
C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
D. 1, 2, 4, 5
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
user_data is a nonencryptedtablespace containing tables with data.
You must encrypt ail data in this tablespace.
Which three methods can do this?
A. Use Data Pump.
B. Use ALTERTABLE. . .MOVE
C. Use CREATE TABLE AS SELECT
D. Use alter tablespace to encrypt the tablespace after enabling row movement on all its
E. Use altertablespace to encrypt the tablespace.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 28
Your database is running in archivelog mode and regular nightly backups are taken. Due to a media failure, the current
online redo log group, which has one member, is lost and the instance is aborted.
Examine the steps to recover the online redo log group and move it to a new location.
1.Restore the corrupted redo log group.
2.Restore the database from the most recent database backup.
3.Perform an incomplete recovery.
4.Relocate the member of the damaged online redo log group to a new location.
5.Open the database with the resetlogs option.
6. Issue a checkpoint and clear the log. Identify the required steps in the correct order.
A. 1, 3, 4, 5
B. 6, 3, 4, 5
C. 2, 3, 4, 5
D. 6, 4, 3, 5
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 29
You have a production Oracle 12c database running on a host.
You want to install and create databases across multiple new machines that do not have any Oracle database software
installed. You also want the new
databases to have the same directory structure and components as your existing 12c database.
The steps in random order:
1.Create directory structures similar to the production database on all new machines. 2.Create a response file for Oracle
Universal Installer (OUI) with the same
configurations as the production database.
3.Create a database clone template for the database.
4.Run the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA) to create the database.
5.Run OUI in graphical mode on each machine.
6.Run OUI in silent mode using the OUI response file.
Identify the required steps in the correct sequence to achieve the requirement with minimal human intervention.
A. 2, 1, 6, and 4
B. 2, 3, and 6
C. 3, 1, 5, and 6 D. 2, 3, 1, and 6
E. 1, 5, and 4
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
In your database, the tbs percent used parameter is set to 60 and the tbs percent free parameter is set to 20.
Which two storage-tiering actions might be automated when using Information Lifecycle Management (ILM) to automate
data movement?
A. The movement of all segments to a target tablespace with a higher degree of compression, on a different storage tier,
when the source tablespace exceeds tbs percent used
B. Setting the target tablespace to read-only after the segments are moved
C. The movement of some segments to a target tablespace with a higher degree of compression, on a different storage
tier, when the source tablespace exceeds T3S percent used
D. Taking the target tablespace offline after the segments are moved
E. The movement of some blocks to a target tablespace with a lower degree of compression, on a different storage tier,
when the source tablespace exceeds tbs percent used
Correct Answer: AB

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Correct Answer: A

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You have two classes written in X++ with the following code:
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D. a base enumeration with three elements that represent each order status
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Correct Answer: D

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C. 30 B
D. 40 C
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
You have tables named Table1 and Table2 The tables have a relation to each other. You need to display data from both of the tables in a form. How should you create the data source for the form?
A. Add both of the tables into a perspective, and use the perspective as the data source.
B. Create a new table named Table3 that has a relation to Tablel and to Table2, and use Table3 as the data source.
C. Add both of the tables into a query, and use the query as the data source.
D. Add both of the tables into a map. and use the map as the data source.
MB6-890 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
You are working in a Visual Studio development environment and want to call a class to update some records. Which type of menu item should you use?
A. Output
B. Action
C. Auto
D. Display
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
You need to create menus in Microsoft Dynamics AX. In addition to the Menu hem type and Menu hem name, what are three other key property values? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Enum Type Parameter
B. Linked Permission Type
C. Configuration Key
D. Labels
E. Normal Image
MB6-890 exam Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 17
You have an X++ class, which has the following code:
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You need to call checkBOM() method of the BomHierarchyCheck class from a static method class. Which
code should you write within the static method to achieve this goal?
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QUESTION 1
Which of the following ports is used by default for DNS traffic?
A. 25
B. 53
C. 143
D. 3389
220-801 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A customer wants to be able to archive a large 15 to 20 GB project to optical media using a single disk. Which of the following should a technician recommend?
A. Blu-Ray writer
B. DVD-RW drive
C. Dual Layer DVD burner
D. CD-ROM burner
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
After making repairs to a user\’s system, which of the following actions should a technician take?
A. Close the case and wait for the customer to call again in the future
B. Leave the case open in the event a similar issue arises
C. Contact the customer a few days later to determine the state of repairs
D. Wait to update service records until the repair is confirmed
220-801 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
The technician has identified prohibited content on a PC. Which of the following would be the FIRST action that the technician should take?
A. Walk away
B. Turn off the PC
C. Report it
D. Search for more
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
When replacing the CPU in a laptop, which of the following locations should have thermal grease applied?
A. Connection points on the system board
B. Bottom of the CPU
C. Top of the CPU
D. Axis of the cooling fan
220-801 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which of the following characteristics is generally found on a docking station that port replicators do not offer?
A. Replicators usually have more USB ports than docks.
B. Docks generally do not need separate power to function.
C. Docks have independent hardware that replicators lack.
D. Replicators have additional NIC that docks lack.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
A technician is installing a liquid cooling system for a high-end gaming PC. Which of the following liquids is MOST likely
used for cooling?
A. Iodine
B. Mercury
C. Thermal paste
D. Oil
220-801 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
The Tower of Hanoi is MOST likely configured in a system which implements:
A. a high RPM drives.
B. a tape drive.
C. an externally attached storage.
D. a RAID configuration.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
A technician has noticed that a client has an unsecured wireless network. Which of the following is the BEST security encryption type to protect the wireless network from intrusion?
A. WEP2
B. WEP
C. WPA2
D. WPS
220-801 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Replacing which of the following laptop components may also replace the power inverter board?
A. PCMCIA slot
B. LCD screen
C. Hard drive
D. WLAN card
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
A coworker has reported that someone has engaged in prohibited activity. The supervisor has asked the technician to quarantine the PC until police arrive. Which of the following should the technician do? (Select TWO).
A. Allow the user to continue working
B. Check for viruses
C. Re-image the hard drive
D. Document time/date for later reference
E. Prevent users from accessing the PC
F. Turn off PC
220-801 dumps Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 12
A technician has installed a serial printer on a PC in the shipping department. The printer self test ran without error. The
user states that printed documents include many wrong characters. Which of the following should be performed to correct this problem?
A. Replace the printer I/O logic and run the printer self test again.
B. Replace the printer cable and reset the printer to factory defaults.
C. Change the printer communication speed to the port setting speed.
D. Change the Parity to eight bit even and one stop bit.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which of the following properties of TCP/IP is used to differentiate the network and the host portions of an IP address?
A. DNS address
B. Default gateway
C. Subnet mask
D. DHCP lease
220-801 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which of the following protocols would be MOST important in preserving digital evidence of criminal activity during an
investigation?
A. Change control management
B. Chain of custody
C. Channel escalation
D. MSDS documents
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which of the following special function keys might prevent a user from connecting to the Internet?
A. Wireless
B. Screen lock
C. Volume
D. Bluetooth
220-801 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
A technician is building a gaming computer for a client. The computer will have a 6- core processor, 16GB memory, and
a high-end graphics card that takes up 2 slots on the motherboard. Which of the following power supply wattages would
be BEST to install for this system?
A. 200W
B. 300W
C. 400W
D. 500W
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which of the following is an example of a MAC address?
A. 192.17.2.1
B. http://www.comptia.org
C. 00-00-00-1B-02-55
D. 4309:FD21:ACB3:0012
220-801 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Which of the following video types has a DB-15 connector?
A. S-video
B. DVI-A
C. DVI-D
D. VGA
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Impact printers use which of the following technology combinations for generating printed output?
A. Pin / Ribbon
B. Nozzle / Ink
C. Drum / Toner
D. Heat / Ribbon
220-801 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
DB-9 connectors are attached to which of the following cable types?
A. HDMI
B. SCSI
C. Serial
D. Parallel
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
A computer is running very slowly and there is a clicking sound coming from the tower. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?
A. Format the drive and install the OS.
B. Partition the drive. Format the drive and install the OS.
C. Backup data. Format and install the OS.
D. Backup data. Replace the drive and install the OS.
220-801 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
An end user requires a computer to support computer aided drafting and computer aided modeling. Which of the following component packages should a technician recommend to the end user?
A. Powerful processor, high-end graphics card, and maximum RAM
B. File streaming, printer sharing, and a RAID array
C. Surround sound audio, compact form factor, HDMI output
D. Processor and RAM that meets minimum Windows requirements
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Which of the following cables uses both the T568A and T568B standards?
A. Ethernet
B. Fiber
C. Coaxial
D. HDMI
220-801 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
When installing an express card in a laptop, a technician should be aware that the difference between ExpressCard/34 and ExpressCard/54 is which of the following?
A. The width in millimeters of the card
B. The memory on the card
C. The power required to run the card
D. The number of pins on the card
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Which of the following technologies is responsible for communication with the CPU?
A. eSATA
B. PCI express
C. Southbridge
D. Northbridge
220-801 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Which of the following features allows an operating system to access multiple virtual processors?
A. Hyper threading
B. Integrated GPU
C. L2 cache
D. Multiple cores
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Thermal paste is used between the CPU and heatsink to:
A. make the heatsink easier to remove when replacing the CPU.
B. aid in the transfer of energy from the CPU to the heatsink.
C. act as a fire retardant should the CPU overheat.
D. keep the heatsink in place on the CPU.
220-801 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
Which of the following is MOST likely needed when installing a new POS thermal printer?
A. RJ-11
B. Operating system disk
C. RG-58
D. Drivers
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
A network consisting of numerous geographically dispersed networks that cover a large physical distance is referred to
as a:
A. WLAN.
B. LAN.
C. WAN.
D. MAN.
220-801 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 30
Which of the following will help protect against brown outs?
A. Power supply
B. Anti-static strap
C. Surge suppressor
D. Battery backup
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 31
Which of the following communication standards requires line-of-site with no obstacles in order to operate properly?
A. Bluetooth
B. IR
C. RF
D. WiFi
220-801 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 32
Which of the following is enabled in the BIOS that will prompt a user, Joe, to enter his password every time the laptop
performs a POST?
A. Power User access
B. Power on password
C. Administrative password
D. User profile access
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 33
Which of the following uses policies to direct network traffic?
A. Router
B. Switch
C. Access Point
D. Bridge
220-801 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 34
Ann, a user, has requested help to choose a new workstation for her design business. Which of the following would be the MOST important feature of a new workstation?
A. FireWire adapter card
B. High performance graphics card
C. Surround sound audio card
D. USB 3.0 port
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
Which of the following CPU features allows the operating system to see a core as dual processors?
A. Dual memory channel
B. 64-bit support
C. Hyperthreading
D. Integrated GPU
220-801 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 36
Which of the following protocols would be used for file sharing between MAC OS and Windows OS workstations on a
LAN?
A. IMAP
B. SMB
C. SSH
D. RDP
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All client computer accounts are in an organizational unit (OU) named AllComputers. Client computers run either windows 7 or Windows 8. You create a Group Policy object (GPO) named GP1. You link GP1 to the AllComputers OU. You need to ensure that GP1 applies only to computers that have more than 8 GB of memory. What should you configure?
A. The Security settings of GP1
B. The Block Inheritance option for AllComputers
C. The Security settings of AllComputers
D. The WMI filter for GP1
70-410 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI) filters allow you to dynamically determine the scope of Group Policy objects (GPOs) based on attributes of the target computer. When a GPO that is linked to a WMI filter is applied on the target computer, the filter is evaluated on the target computer. If the WMI filter evaluates to false, the GPO is not applied (except if the client computer is running Windows Server, in which case the filter is ignored and the GPO is always applied).If the WMI filter evaluates to true, the GPO is applied.
References:
Training Guide: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012 R2: Chapter 10: Implementing Group Policy, p.470, 482

QUESTION 2
Your network contains multiple subnets. On one of the subnets, you deploy a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You install the DNS Server server role on Server1, and then you create a standard primary zone named contoso.com. You need to ensure that client computers can resolve single-label names to IP addresses. What should you do first?
A. Create a reverse lookup zone.
B. Convert the contoso.com zone to an Active Directory-integrated zone.
C. Create a GlobalNames zone.
D. Configure dynamic updates for contoso.com.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
You should use GlobalNames zone to take advantage of single-label names. This will also ensure that the zone remains valid.
References:
Exam Ref: 70-410: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012 R2, Chapter4: Deploying and configuring core network services, Objective 4.3: Deploy and Configure the DNS service, p.233

QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The DNS zone for contoso.com is Active-Directory integrated. The domain contains 500 client computers. There are an additional 20 computers in a workgroup. You discover that every client computer on the network can add its record to the contoso.com zone. You need to ensure that only the client computers in the Active Directory domain can register records in the contoso.com zone. What should you do?
A. Sign the contoso.com zone by using DNSSEC.
B. Configure the Dynamic updates settings of the contoso.com zone.
C. Configure the Security settings of the contoso.com zone.
D. Move the contoso.com zone to a domain controller that is configured as a DNS server.
70-410 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named Server1 that has the DNS Server server role installed. Server1 hosts a primary zone for contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named Server2 that is configured to use Server1 as its primary DNS server. From Server2, you run nslookup.exe as shown in the exhibit.(Click the Exhibit button.)
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You need to ensure that when you run Nslookup, the correct name of the default server is displayed.
What should you do?
A. On Server1, create a reverse lookup zone.
B. On Server1, modify the Security settings of the contoso.com zone.
C. From Advanced TCP/IP Settings on Server1, add contoso.com to the DNS suffix list.
D. From Advanced TCP/IP Settings on Server2, add contoso.com to the DNS suffix list.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Make sure that a reverse lookup zone that is authoritative for the PTR resource record exists. PTR records contain the information that is required for the server to
perform reverse name lookups.
References:

QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DHCP server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You create a DHCP scope named Scope1. The scope has a start address of 192.168.1.10, an end address of 192.168.1.50, and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192.
You need to ensure that Scope1 has a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0. What should you do first?
A. From the DHCP console, reconcile Scope1.
B. From the DHCP console, delete Scope1.
C. From the DHCP console, modify the Scope Options of Scope1.
D. From Windows PowerShell, run the Set-DhcpServerv4Scope cmdlet.
70-410 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The only way to change the subnet mask of a scope is to delete and recreate the scope.
Set-DhcpServerv4Scope does not include a parameter for the subnet mask.

QUESTION 6
Your company has a main office and two branch offices. The offices connect to each other by using a WAN link.
In the main office, you have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 is configured to use an IPv4 address only. You need to assign an IPv6 address to Server1. The IP address must be private and routable. Which IPv6 address should you assign to Server1?
A. 2001:ab32:145c::32cc:401b
B. ff00:3rff:65df:145c:dca8::82a4
C. fd00:ab32:14:ad88:ac:58:abc2:4
D. fe80:ab32:145c::32cc:401b
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Unique local addresses
Unique local addresses are IPv6 addresses that are private to an organization in the same way that private addresses–such as 10.x.x.x, 192.168.x.x, or 172.16.0.0 – 172.31.255.255–can be used on an IPv4 network.
Unique local addresses, therefore, are not routable on the IPv6 Internet in the same way that an address like 10.20.100.55 is not routable on the IPv4 Internet.
A unique local address is always structured as follows:
The first 8 bits are always 11111101 in binary format. This means that a unique local address always begins with FD and has a prefix identifier of FD00::/8.
References:
Exam Ref 70-410: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012 R2: Chapter 6: p.266

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains several thousand member servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2.All of the computer accounts for the member servers are in an organizational unit (OU) named ServersAccounts. Servers are restarted only occasionally. You need to identify which servers were restarted during the last two days. What should you do?
A. Run Get-ADComputer and specify the SearchScope parameter.
B. Run dsquery computer and specify the -stalepwd parameter.
C. Run dsquery server and specify the -o parameter.
D. Run Get-ADComputer and specify the lastLogon property.
70-410 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains two domains named contoso.com and child.contoso.com and two sites named Site1 and Site2. The domains and the sites are configured as shown in following table.
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When the link between Site1 and Site2 fails, users fail to log on to Site2. You need to identify what prevents the users in Site2 from logging on to the child.contoso.com domain. What should you identify?
A. The placement of the global catalog server
B. The placement of the infrastructure master
C. The placement of the domain naming master
D. The placement of the PDC emulator
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The exhibit shows that Site2 does not have a PDC emulator. This is important because of the close interaction between the RID operations master role and the PDC emulator role The PDC emulator processes password changes from earlier-version clients and other domain controllers on a best-effort basis; handles password authentication requests involving passwords that have recently changed and not yet been replicated throughout the domain; and, by default, synchronizes time. If this domain controller cannot connect to the PDC emulator, this domain controller cannot process authentication requests, it may not be able to synchronize time, and
password updates cannot be replicated to it.

QUESTION 9
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You plan to use Windows PowerShell Desired State Configuration (DSC) to confirm that the Application Identity service is running on all file servers.
You define the following configuration in the Windows PowerShell Integrated Scripting Environment (ISE):
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You need to use DSC to configure Server1 as defined in the configuration.
What should you run first?
A. Service1
B. Configuration1
C. Start DscConfiguration
D. Test-DscConfigu ration
70-410 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 210-451 Dumps Exam Q&As(19-47)

QUESTION 19
Which three options are the advantages of VXLAN? (Choose three.)
A. Increase of VLAN address space
B. Support multi-tenancy
C. Connectivity across disparate virtual data centers
D. Uses Spanning Tree Protocol for loop prevention
E. Configure Portgroup Virtual port ID
F. Configure Portgroup Load Based Teaming
210-451 exam Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 20
Which platform is ideally used to orchestrate a FlexPod from a single management platform?
A. Cisco UCS Manager
B. Cisco UCS Director
C. Cisco Prime Cloud Automation Manager
D. Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure Manager
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Which protocol does Cisco Nexus 1000V use to provide flow redirection for vService interaction?
A. OpFlex
B. vPath
C. FlexPath
D. VLAN bridging
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Which /etc/exports line will allow you to enable read-only access from the NFS client 192.168.1.100?
A. /images 192.168.1.100 (ro,async)
B. /images 192.168.1.100 (755,async)
C. /images 192.168.1.1/24 (755,no_root_squash,async)
D. /images 192.168.1.1/27 (ro,async)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
What are the key features of UCS?
A. 10 Gigabit unified network fabric, virtualization optimization, unified management, service profiles, flexible IO options
B. Gigabit network , virtualization optimization, unified management, service profiles, flexible IO options
C. 10 Gigabit unified network fabric, virtualization hardware, unified management, service profiles, performance IO options
D. 10 Gigabit unified network fabric, virtualization optimization, unified management, service profiles, performance IO options
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Which of these are hypervisors typically utilized in a modern data center?
A. VMware, HyperV, Linux
B. ESXi, HyperV, Linux
C. ESXi, HyperV, KVM
D. VMware, HyperV, KVM
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
In an Openstack Cloud deployment which has a fibre channel SAN providing the block storage, which two options are valid fibre channel zone member types? (Choose two.)
A. FCID
B. DomainID
C. WWPN
D. OpenStack Volume ID
210-451 vce Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 26
Which description of Cisco vPath is true?
A. a protocol that provides end-to-end path assurance for Cloud-based systems
B. an embedded intelligence in Cisco VEM that provides abstracted control and forward plane functionality
C. a service that provides forwarding plane abstraction for inline redirection of traffic for vServices
D. a vService that allows for security policy enforcement through transparent bridging
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Which three options are considered Cloud deployment models? (Choose three.)
A. Public Cloud
B. Hybrid Cloud
C. Open Cloud
D. Private Cloud
E. Stack Cloud
F. Distributed Cloud
210-451 exam Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 28
Which two descriptions of VXLAN are true? (Choose two.)
A. The VXLAN Identifier space is 24 bits.
B. VXLAN uses the Internet Protocol as the transport medium.
C. VXLAN adds 24 bytes of overhead to each packet.
D. VXLAN is primarily designed for small environments.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 29
Which of the following two storage technologies would require that its\’ block device be attached to an instance before you can perform any filesystem commands? (Choose two.)
A. SCSI LUN
B. Cinder Volume
C. NFS Filesystem Meta-Volume
D. Direct Object Block Device
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 30
Which option is the correct steps to regenerate a UCS B-Series SSL certificate?
A. Open an SSH session to the CIMC IP # scope security # scope keyring default # set regenerate yes # commit-buffer
B. Open an SSH session to the CIMC IP # scope certificate # set regenerate yes # commit-buffer
C. Open an SSH session to the CIMC IP # scope security # scope certificate # set regenerate yes # commit-buffer
D. Using the UCSM GUI Navigate to the Admin tab Expand ALL andgt; Key Management Right-click Key Management and choose regenerate certificate Click OK
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 31
Which option is the correct steps to regenerate a UCS B-Series SSL certificate?
A. Open an SSH session to the CIMC IP # scope security # scope keyring default # set regenerate yes # commit-buffer
B. Open an SSH session to the CIMC IP # scope certificate # set regenerate yes # commit-buffer
C. Open an SSH session to the CIMC IP # scope security # scope certificate # set regenerate yes # commit buffer
D. Using the UCSM GUI Navigate to the Admin tab Expand ALL andgt; Key Management Right-click Key Management and choose regenerate certificate Click OK
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
In an Openstack Cloud deployment which has a fibre channel SAN providing the block storage, which two options are valid fibre channel zone member types? (Choose two.)
A. FCID
B. DomainID
C. WWPN
D. OpenStack Volume ID
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 33
The Cisco InterCloud Fabric Director provides what functionality?
A. It is the single point of management and consumption for hybrid Cloud solutions.
B. It is the single point of management and consumption for public Cloud solutions.
C. It is the single point of management and consumption for private Cloud solutions.
D. It is a plugin of a Virtual Machine Manager to provide management and configuration for hybrid Cloud solutions.
210-451 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 34
Which statement about the differences between vSwitch and DVS is true?
A. vSwitch supports Spanning Tree Protocol.
B. DVS supports Spanning Tree Protocol.
C. vSwitch supports private VLAN.
D. DVS supports private VLAN.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 35
Which /etc/exports line will allow you to enable read-only access from the NFS client 192.168.1.100?
A. /images 192.168.1.100 (ro,async)
B. /images 192.168.1.100 (755,async)
C. /images 192.168.1.1/24 (755,no_root_squash,async)
D. /images 192.168.1.1/27 (ro,async)
210-451 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 36
Which Cloud service model is appropriate for a physical data center move to the Cloud?
A. Infrastructure as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Compute as a Service
D. Software as a Service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
Which three options are the advantages of VXLAN? (Choose three.)
A. Increase of VLAN address space
B. Support multi-tenancy
C. Connectivity across disparate virtual data centers
D. Uses Spanning Tree Protocol for loop prevention
E. Configure Portgroup Virtual port ID
F. Configure Portgroup Load Based Teaming
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 38
Which description of RAID6 is true?
A. block-level striping of data with double distributed parity
B. drive-level striping of data with double distributed parity
C. block-level striping of data with single distributed parity
D. block-level mirroring of data with double distributed parity
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 39
Which technology focuses on Layer 2 distributed data centers?
A. FabricPath
B. Adapter FEX
C. LISP
D. OTV
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 40
VMware\’s ESXi Hypervisor is a Type-1 hypervisor. What does this mean?
A. It should be placed first in your data center.
B. It runs a conventional operating system and abstracts the guest operating system from its host system.
C. It should only be run in class 1 data centers with high availability.
D. It runs directly on the host hardware to control and manage the guest operating systems.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 41
Which type of zoning is represented? zone name zone1 vsan 10 member pwwn 20:00:00:55:a5:00:00:04 member pwwn 50:00:d3:10:00:18:e1:05 member pwwn 50:00:d3:10:00:18:e1:06
A. Single Initiator Multi Target
B. Multi Initiator Single Target
C. Single Target Single Initiator
D. Multi Initiator Multi Target
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 42
Which option describes what the use of no_root_squash does in an NFS environment?
A. It causes the NFS share to be mounted by a non-root user and is required for hypervisors that utilize RBAC for users.
B. It allows a NFS share to be mounted and written to as the root user by the hypervisor.
C. It allows a NFS share to be mounted by root, but all subsequent writes are as a non-root user.
D. It allows a NFS share to be mounted by a non-root user and all subsequent writes are as a non-root user.
210-451 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 43
Which platform is ideally used to orchestrate a FlexPod from a single management platform?
A. Cisco UCS Manager
B. Cisco UCS Director
C. Cisco Prime Cloud Automation Manager
D. Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure Manager
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 44
Which three options are the advantages of VXLAN? (Choose three.)
A. Increase of VLAN address space
B. Support multi-tenancy
C. Connectivity across disparate virtual data centers
D. Uses Spanning Tree Protocol for loop prevention
E. Configure Portgroup Virtual port ID
F. Configure Portgroup Load Based Teaming
210-451 exam Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 45
IaaS is an acronym for what type of Cloud?
A. Instances as a Service
B. Infrastructure as a Service
C. Internet as a Service
D. Images as a Service
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 46
What two protocols does a physical switch and Nexus 1000V support? (Choose two.)
A. MPLS
B. STP
C. ARP
D. CDP
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 47
Which option is the correct steps to regenerate a UCS B-Series SSL certificate?
A. Open an SSH session to the CIMC IP # scope security # scope keyring default # set regenerate yes # commit-buffer
B. Open an SSH session to the CIMC IP # scope certificate # set regenerate yes # commit-buffer
C. Open an SSH session to the CIMC IP # scope security # scope certificate # set regenerate yes # commit-buffer
D. Using the UCSM GUI Navigate to the Admin tab Expand ALL andgt; Key Management Right-click Key Management
and choose regenerate certificate Click OK
Correct Answer: A
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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 600-460 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-15)

QUESTION 1
In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise with Cisco Unified CVP, which two statements about how to increase the Cisco Unified CVP availability are true? (Choose two.)
A. Must have SIP Proxy server to pass messages between the gateways and the Cisco Unified CVP servers.
B. Must have voice gateway TCL scripts to handle conditions where the gateways cannot contact the Cisco Unified CVP Call Server to direct the call correctly.
C. Add load balancers to load balance .wav file requests across multiple Cisco Unified CVP Media Servers.
D. Dedicate duplexed VRU peripheral gateways for each Cisco Unified CVP call server.
E. For a single data center with centralized deployment, deploy Cisco Unified CVP with N:N redundancy.
600-460 exam Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
In the Cisco Contact Center Enterprise solution, which process is responsible for peer-to-peer synchronization?
A. ccagent
B. mds
C. router
D. opc
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
What is the semantic meaning of the RouterCallKeyDay variable?
A. It represents a number that corresponds to the day that the call was taken. For example: at midnight it could increment from 151191 to 151192.
B. It represents a string that corresponds to the day that the call was taken. For example: at midnight it could advance from “Monday” to “Tuesday”.
C. It represents a number that uniquely identifies the call during the day it was taken. For example: at midnight it would reset to zero.
D. It represents a sequence number used for ordering rows for the same call.
E. It represents a string that corresponds to a Globally Unique Call Identifier.
600-460 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise is deployed with Cisco Finesse and you make changes to CTI Server, Contact Center Enterprise Administration, or cluster settings. Which service must be restarted for changes to take effect?
A. Cluster Manager
B. System Application Agent
C. Cisco DB
D. Cisco Tomcat
E. Cisco Dirsync
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Within Cisco Unified ICM, which process handles communication between the router and peripheral gateway components?
A. dbagent
B. opcs
C. ccagent
D. mds
600-460 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
One drawback of business process reengineering BPR), sometimes referred to as business process analysis, is:
A. Improved efficiency in the business processes analyzed.
B. Excess of cast over the benefit.
C. Reduction of operational efficiency.
D. Employee resistance to change.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Business process reengineering BPR), or business process analysis, involves processinnovation and process redesign. Instead of improving existing procedures, it finds new waysof doing things. One major drawback of BPR is that employees may be resistant due to fearof layoffs, being replaced, or insecurity about new required skills or tasks that the employeenow has to perform.

QUESTION 7
Heniser Pet Foods manufactures two products, X. and Y. The unit contribution margins for Products X. and Y are US $30 and US $50, respectively. Each product uses Materials A and Product uses 6 pounds of Material A and 12 pounds of Material B. Product Y uses 12 pounds of Material A and 8 pounds of Material B. The company can purchase only 1,200 pounds of Material A and 1,760 pounds of Material B. The optimal mix of products to manufacture is:
A. 146 units of and 0 units of Y.
B. 0 units of X and 100 units of Y.
C. 120 units of and 40 units of Y.
D. 40 units of X. and 120 units of Y.
600-460 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Linear programming is a technique used to maximize a contribution margin function or tominimize a cost function, subject to constraints such as scarce resources orminimum/maximum levels of production. Thus, linear programming is often used forplanning resource allocations. In this problem, the equation to be maximized, called theobjective function, is: U3 $30)K+ $50Y. This equation is to be maximized subject to theconstraints on materials. The two constraint functions are:
Material A: 6X + 12Y < 1,200
Material B: I 2X + 8Y < 1,760
One way to solve this problem is to graph the constraint lines and determine the feasible area. The optimal production level is at an extreme point within the feasible area. The graph showsthat a production level of 120 units of and 40 units of Y is a feasible production level thatmaximizes the contribution margin.

QUESTION 8
Dale has 20 days to complete production of an order for an important customer. The customer wants 96 units of product that may be painted either red or white. The red units can be produced at a rate of 4 per day. The white units, because of a different quality of paint, can be produced at a rate of 7 per day. The materials for the red units cost US $80 each, while the white units cost US $120 each. Dale wants to keep costs at a minimum. What is the constraint that expresses the number of units to be produced?
A. 4R + 7W = 20
B. R4) + W = 7) <20
C. R + W = 20
D. 4R + 7W = 96
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The constraint function that expresses the number of units to be produced is R + W = –I 96,but that is not one of the answer choices. Another constraint is that the total quantities of red R) and white W) units must be produced in 20 or fewer days at a rate of 4 red units per dayand 7 white units per day. Thus, the time constraint is R – 4) + W – 7) 20.

QUESTION 9
The data below were gathered on two different machine centers and two products.  Which item below would be part of a linear programming formulation of this problem?
A. Maximize: Contribution > 4A + 5B.
B. Subject to: A < O.
C. Subject to: 2.5A + 4B < 60.
D. Subject to: 4A + 5B < 130.
600-460 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The linear programming solution is subject to constraints on the availability of machinehours in both centers. For example, products A and B require 2.5 and 4 hours per unit,respectively, inMachine Center 1, but only 60 hours are available. Hence, the optimalproduction of A and B to the following constraint: 2.5 A + 4B < 60

QUESTION 10
A firm must decide the mix of production of Product X and Product Y. There are only two resources used in the two products, resources A and B. Data related to the two products is given in the following table: What is the appropriate objective function to maximize profit?
A. 3X + 7Y
B. 2X+Y
C. 8X + 6Y
D. 5X + 8Y
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The objective function is the function to be optimized. This firm wishes to maximize profitson the sales of two products X and Y). Based on profits per unit US $8 and US $6,respectively), the objective function is 8X + 6Y.

QUESTION 11
To remove the effect of seasonal variation from a time series, original data should be:
A. Increased by the seasonal factor.
B. Reduced by the seasonal factor.
C. Multiplied by the seasonal factor.
D. Divided by the seasonal factor.
600-460 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Seasonal variations are common in many businesses. To remove the effect of seasonalvariation from a time series, the original data with the four trends) is divided by the seasonalnorm.

QUESTION 12
Sales representatives for a manufacturing company are reimbursed for 100 percent of their cellular telephone bills. Cellular telephone costs vary significantly from representative to representative and from month to month, complicating the budgeting and forecasting processes. Management has requested that the internal auditors develop a method for controlling these costs. Which of the following would most appropriately be included in the scope of the consulting project?
A. Control self-assessment involving sales representatives.
B. Benchmarking with other cellular telephone users.
C. Business process review of procurement and payables routines.
D. Performance measurement and design of the budgeting and forecasting processes.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A business process review BPR) assesses the performance of administrative, financial, andother processes, such as those within the procurement and payables functions. BPR considersprocess effectiveness and efficiency, including the presence of appropriate controls, tomitigate business risk. It seeks to achieve improvements in such critical measures ofperformance as cost, quality, service, speed, and customer satisfaction. Because the objectiveis to control cellular phone costs, BPR is the appropriate tool. Section 2: Sec Two (158 to 276) Details: Managing Resources and Pricing

QUESTION 13
The order costs associated with inventory management include:
A. Insurance costs, purchasing costs, shipping costs, and obsolescence.
B. Obsolescence, setup costs, quantity discounts lost, and storage costs.
C. Quantity discounts lost, storage costs, handling costs, and interest on capital invested.
D. Purchasing costs, shipping costs, setup costs, and quantity discounts lost.
600-460 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Order costs include purchasing costs, shipping costs, setup costs for a production run, andquantity discounts lost.

QUESTION 14
The carrying costs associated with inventory management include:
A. Insurance costs, shipping costs, storage costs, and obsolescence.
B. Storage costs, handling costs, capital invested, and obsolescence.
C. Purchasing costs, shipping costs, setup costs, and quantity discounts lost.
D. Obsolescence, setup costs, capital invested, and purchasing costs.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Carrying costs include storage costs, handling costs, insurance costs, interest on capitalinvested, and obsolescence. Candman Company is a wholesale distributor of candy. Thecompany leases space in a public warehouse and is charged according to the square feetoccupied. Candman has decided to employ the economic order quantity 0Q) method todetermine the optimum number of cases of candy to order. The company placed 2,400 orderslast year. Data for the high activity month, the low-activity month, and the year for thepurchasing and warehouse operations appear in the next column. The annual charges for thewarehouse totaled US $12,750 last year. In addition, the annual insurance and property taxeson the candy stored in the warehouse amounted to US $1,500 and US $2,250, respectively. The average monthly inventory last year was US $75,000.

QUESTION 15
What is the incremental cost of placing an order that would be used in the EOO model?
A. US $48
B. US $35
C. US $24
D. US $19
600-460 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The incremental cost of additional orders equals the variable costs incurred in purchasing andreceiving inventory but not costs associated with shipping). Using the high-low method ofanalysis, these variable costs can be computed by determining the apparent variable costs forthetwo given levels of activity. For 160 orders, the relevant costs with a variable elementinclude purchasing clerks, US $1,750: supplies, US $400, and receiving clerks, US $2,200. The total is US $4,350. For 100 orders, these costs are US $1,250, US $260, and US $1,700,respectively, for a total of US $3,210. As the number of orders increased by 60, the costsincreased by US $1 .140. Consequently, the variable or incremental costs per order musthave been US $19 $1 .140 – 60 orders). Candman Company is a wholesale distributor ofcandy. The company leases space in a public warehouse and is charged according to thesquare feet occupied.
Candman has decided to employ the economic order quantity 0Q)method to determine the optimum number of cases of candy to order. The company placed2,400 orders last year. Data for the high-activity month, the low- activity month, and the yearfor the purchasing and warehouse operations appear in the next column. The annual chargesfor the warehouse totaled US $12,750 last year. In addition, the annual insurance andproperty taxes on the candy stored in the warehouse amounted to US $1,500 and US $2,250,respectively. The average monthly inventory last year was US $75,000.

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 400-251 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-31)
QUESTION 1
You’ve set up a software update server. Which is a valid method of configuring client computers to retrieve updates from your server?
A. In the Sharing pane of System Preferences on the client computers, click Update Server, then select your server from the Update Servers list
B. Install a configuration profile with a Software Update payload specifying the URL of your software update server
C. Install an XML file in /Library/SoftwareUpdates/ on the client computers containing the IP address of your server
D. In the App Store app on the client computers, choose App Store > Preferences, click Updates, and select your server from the Update Servers list
400-251 exam 
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
When creating a network disk image that will be stored at the root of a volume, which action should you add to the workflow so that the network disk image can be used to start up a computer?
A. Define Image Source
B. Define NetRestore Source
C. Bless NetBoot Image Folder
D. Enable Automated Installation
E. Create Image
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
In OS X Server, which feature does the Software Update service provides, but the Caching service does NOT?
A. The caching of software updates from Apple
B. The caching of software purchased from the Mac App Store
C. The ability to select which Apple software updates are available to managed client computers
D. The ability to deliver custom-built installation packages to client computers
E. The caching of books purchased through iTunes
400-251 dumps 
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You used Terminal to configure an OS X computer to retrieve updates from PretendCo’s internal software update server, but the server is no longer active. How would you point the client computer back to the Apple Software Update server to retrieve software updates?
A. In Terminal, type sudo defaults delete /Library/Preferences/com.apple.SoftwareUpdate CatalogURL and press Return
B. In App Store preferences, click Reset Software Updates
C. In Terminal, type sudo defaults write /Library/Preferences/com.apple.SoftwareUpdate CatalogURL “http://updates.apple.com:8088/index.sucatalog” and press Return
D. In the General pane of System Preferences, click Reset Software Updates
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
How can you configure an unmanaged OS X computer to retrieve software updates from a software
update server at updates.pretendcom?

A. In Terminal, type sudo defaults write com.pretendco.updates SoftwareUpdates and press Return
B. In Software Update preferences, click the Advanced tab and enter “updates.pretendco.com” in the URL field
C. In App Store preferences, click the Advanced tab and enter “updates.pretendco.com” in the Update Server field
D. In Terminal, type sudo defaults write /Library/Preferences/com.apple.Softwarellpdate CatalogURL “http://updates.pretendco.com:8088/index.sucatalog” and press Return
400-251 pdf 
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Your Mac hasn’t booted from a NetInstall server before. Which key(s) do you hold down during startup so that the computer boots from the default network boot image provided by a NetInstall server?
A. N
B. Control-N
C. Command-N
D. Command-Shift-N
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Where on an OS X Mavericks computer would you find the utility to create a network disk image?
A. /Applications/
B. /Applications/Utilities/
C. /Library/CoreServices/
D. /System/Library/CoreServices/
400-251 vce 
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which term is used in Apple Remote Desktop to describe an organized collection of computers that you want to manage similarly?
A. Task Server
B. Workgroup
C. Managed group
D. Computer list
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which protocol is used by Mac computers to discover NetInstall servers?
A. Peer Discovery Protocol (PDP)
B. Bonjour
C. Boot Service Discovery Protocol (BSDP)
D. Simple Service Discovery Protocol (SSDP)
400-251 exam 
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
What do you need to do on an OS X computer on your local network so that it’s able to take advantage of a Caching server located at server.pretendco.com on the same network?
A. In the App Store pane of System Preferences, click the Caching Server button and select your new Caching server

B. In the App Store app, choose App Store > Preferences, click the Caching Server tab, click the Add (+) button, locate your Caching server, and
C. In the Software Update pane of System Preferences, click the Caching Server button and select your new Caching server
D. No configuration is required on the OS X computer
E. In Terminal, enter defaults write /Library/Preferences/com.apple.Caching CatalogURL “http:// server.pretendco.com:8088/catalogs.cachingcatalog”
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 11
When using the file import scanner to import a list of computers to be managed into Apple Remote Desktop, which TWO computer properties can be used to specify which computers will be managed? (Choose TWO)
A. MAC address
B. IP addresses
C. Computer names
D. Fully qualified domain names
E. Remote Management ID
400-251 dumps 
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 12
In reference to Profile Manager, what is a payload?
A. A collection of settings in the configuration profile
B. An application installed on a computer via a profile
C. The list of computers where a configuration profile will be installed
D. An OS X app to be installed on the client computer
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
What do you use to create and manage Profile Manager configuration profiles?
A. Server Admin
B. System Preferences
C. A web browser
D. Workgroup Manager
E. Server app
400-251 pdf 
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
You have a USB flash drive connected to a Mavericks computer that has the OS X Mavericks Installer app downloaded. Which of these steps should you perform to make the flash drive a bootable installer volume?
A. Use Disk Utility to restore the disk image contained within the OS X Mavericks Installer app to the USB flash drive
B. In Terminal, use the create install media command contained within the OS X Mavericks Installer app to make the flash drive bootable using Installer app
C. In Terminal, use diskutil command to restore the disk image contained within the OS X Mavericks Installer app to the USB flash drive
D. Copy the OS X Mavericks Installer app to the flash drive and create a workflow in Automator that uses the Bless Installer Volume action to make the flash drive bootable
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which tool can you use to configure the NetInstall service on a computer running OS X Server?
A. Server app
B. System Image Utility
C. Server Admin
D. Workgroup Manager
E. NetBoot Admin
F. System Preferences
400-251 vce 
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 16
Which payload is required in all configuration profiles?
A. Passcode
B. Certificate
C. General
D. Restrictions
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Previously, you used a keyboard shortcut to get your computer to boot from a default image on a NetInstall server. Recently, the administrator selected a different image as the default NetInstall image. What key(s) should you press during startup to force your computer to boot from the new default image?
A. N
B. Control-N
C. Command-N
D. Option-N
E. Command-Shift-N
400-251 exam 
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
While creating a customized network disk image, which Automator action should you add to set the computer name for computers that are restored using the image?
A. Add Configuration Profiles
B. Apply System Configuration Settings
C. Bless NetBoot Image Folder
D. Define Image Source
E. Define Multi-Volume NetRestore
F. Define NetRestore Source
G. Filter Clients by MAC Address
H. Filter Computer Models
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Your Mac was stolen. Fortunately, it’s managed by the Profile Manager service on the server at manage.pretendco.com. In a browser, what URL to access Profile Manager to wipe your Mac?
A. https://wipe.manage.pretendco.com/
B. https://manage.pretendco.com/wipe/

C. https://manage.pretendco.com/mydevices/
D. https://mydevices.manage.pretendco.com/
400-251 dumps 
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
What is the file extension for the complete network boot image created by System Image Utility?
A. .image
B. .netboot
C. .nbi
D. .dmg
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
While creating a customized network disk image, which Automator action should you add to the workflow to restrict which computer types start up using the image?
A. Add Configuration Profiles
B. Apply System Configuration Settings
C. Bless NetBoot Image Folder
D. Customize Package Selection
E. Define Multi-Volume NetRestore
F. Define NetRestore Source
G. Filter Clients by MAC Address
H. Filter Computer Models
400-251 pdf 
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
What’s the format of a configuration profile?
A. Tab-delimited text
B. Comma-delimited text
C. RTF
D. XML
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Which THREE reports can Apple Remote Desktop run by default? (Choose THREE)
A. CPU Usage
B. Software Serial Number
C. Software Version
D. Application Usage
E. Software Difference
F. Network Usage
400-251 vce 
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 24
Which tool do you use to turn on and configure the Profile Manager service?
A. Profile Monitor

B. Server Admin
C. Workgroup Manager
D. Server app
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
What’s the earliest version of OS X that can be installed on a client computer so that it can use the Caching service on a computer running OS X Server?
A. MacOSXv10.6.8
B. OSXV10.7
C. OS Xv10.7.4
D. OSXv10.8
E. OSXv10.8.2
F. OSXv10.9
400-251 exam 
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 26
Which feature is available in the Software Update service in OS X Server?
A. The ability to restrict client computers to download Apple software updates from your software update server only
B. The ability to create and distribute custom software update packages to client computers, along with Apple software updates
C. The ability to automatically download all Apple software updates but serve only selected updates to client computers
D. The ability to restrict client computers’ access to Apple software updates based on client computer Ethernet addresses
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
Which application do you use to configure and monitor the Software Update service on a computer running OS X Server?
A. Server app
B. A web browser
C. Workgroup Manager
D. Profile Manager
400-251 dumps 
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
Which URL should you send to users so they can enroll their devices with your Profile Manager server at manage.pretendco.com?
A. https://profilemanager.manage.pretendco.com
B. https://mydevices.manage.pretendco.com
C. https://manage.pretendco.com/profilemanager
D. https://manage.pretendco.com/mydevices
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
Which three additional configuration elements must you apply to complete a functional Flex VPN deployment?(Choose three)
A. Interface Loopback0 Tunnel mode ipsec ipv6 Tunnel protection ipsec profile default
B. Aaa authorization network ccie local
C. Crypto ikev2 keyring default Peer PEER-ROUTER Address 2001 101/64
Interface Virtual-Template5 type tunnel
Ip nhrp network-id 10
Ip nhrp shortcut Loopack0
D. Crypto ikev2 keyring KEYS Peer PEER-ROUTER Address 2001 101/64 Crypto ikev2 profile default
Aaa authorization group pak list ccie default
E. Interface Tunnelo Bfd interval 50 min-rx 50 multiplier 3 No bfd echo
F. Interface Virtual-Template5 type tunnel Ip nhrp network-id 10
Ipv6 enable
Interface Lookback0
Ipv6 eigrp 10
400-251 pdf 
Correct Answer: DEF

QUESTION 30
<featureCheck>
<deviceResponse>
<feature>

name=”json”
support=”yes”
</feature>
</deviceResponse>
</featureCheck>
Which data format is used in this script?
A. API
B. JavaScript
C. JSON
D. YANG
E. XML
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 31
Which two options are unicast address types for IPv6 addressing?(Choose two)
A. Link-local.
B. Established.
C. Global
D. Dynamic
E. Static
400-251 vce 
Correct Answer: AC

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[New Updated] Valid and Updated Cisco CCNA 200-155 Dumps DCICT Certification Exam PDF Questions Answers Video Study Online

Is Cisco 200-155 dumps certification worth getting? The Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies (200-155 DCICT) exam is a 90 minutes (55 – 65 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCNA Data Center certification. Valid and updated Cisco CCNA 200-155 dumps DCICT certification exam pdf questions answers video study online.

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 200-155 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION 1
An application is creating hashes of each file on an attached storage device. Which of the following will typically occur during this process?
A. An increase in the amount of time it takes for the system to respond to requests
B. Reduced risk of an attack
C. Increased risk of an attack
D. A reduction in the amount of time it takes for the system to respond to requests
200-155 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
You have been assigned to configure a DMZ that uses multiple firewall components. Specifically, you must configure a router that will authoritatively monitor and, if necessary, block traffic. This device will be the last
one that inspects traffic before it passes to the internal network. Which term best describes this device?
A. Screening router
B. Bastion host
C. Proxy server
D. Choke router
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
A distributed denial-of-service (DDOS) attack has occurred where both ICMP and TCP packets have
crashed the company’s Web server. Which of the following techniques will best help reduce the severity of this attack?
A. Filtering traffic at the firewall
B. Changing your ISP
C. Installing Apache Server rather than Microsoft IIS
D. Placing the database and the Web server on separate systems
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Which of the following is considered to be the most secure default firewall policy, yet usually causes the most work from an administrative perspective?
A. Configuring the firewall to respond automatically to threats
B. Blocking all access by default, then allowing only necessary connections
C. Configuring the firewall to coordinate with the intrusion-detection system
D. Allowing all access by default, then blocking only suspect network connections
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Which of the following is most likely to pose a security threat to a Web server?
A. CGI scripts
B. Database connections
C. Flash or Silverlight animation files
D. LDAP servers
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
What is the first tool needed to create a secure networking environment?
A. User authentication
B. Confidentiality
C. Security policy
D. Auditing
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
Irina has contracted with a company to provide Web design consulting services. The company has asked her to use several large files available via an HTTP server. The IT department has provided Irina with user name and password, as well as the DNS name of the HTTP server. She then used this information to obtain the files she needs to complete her task using Mozilla Firefox. Which of the following is a primary risk factor when authenticating with a standard HTTP server?
A. HTTP usescleartext transmission during authentication, which can lead to a man-in-the- middle attack.
B. Irina has used the wrong application for this protocol, thus increasing the likelihood of a man-in- the middle attack.
C. A standard HTTP connection uses public-key encryption that is not sufficiently strong, inviting the possibility of a man-in-the-middle attack.
D. Irina has accessed the Web server using a non-standard Web browser.
200-155 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Requests for Web-based resources have become unacceptably slow. You have been assigned to implement a solution that helps solve this problem. Which of the following would you recommend?
A. Enablestateful multi-layer inspection on the packet filter
B. Implement caching on the network proxy server
C. Enable authentication on the network proxy server
D. Implement a screening router on the network DMZ
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
You have discovered that the ls, su and ps commands no longer function as expected. They do not return information in a manner similar to any other Linux system. Also, the implementation of Tripwire you have installed on this server is returning new hash values. Which of the following has most likely occurred?
A. Atrojan has attacked the system.
B. A SQL injection attack has occurred.
C. A spyware application has been installed. D.
A root kit has been installed on the system.
200-155 exam Correct Answer:
QUESTION 10
Which of the following organizations provides regular updates concerning security breaches and issues?
A. IETF
B. ISO
C. ICANN
D. CERT
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
You have been asked to encrypt a large file using a secure encryption algorithm so you can send it via e mail to your supervisor. Encryption speed is important. The key will not be transmitted across a network. Which form of encryption should you use?
A. Asymmetric
B. PGP
C. Hash
D. Symmetric
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Which of the following is the most likely first step to enable a server to recover from a denial-of- service attack in which all hard disk data is lost?
A. Enable virtualization
B. Contact the backup service
C. Contact a disk recovery service
D. Rebuild your RAID 0 array
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
You purchased a network scanner six months ago. In spite of regularly conducting scans using this software, you have noticed that attackers have been able to compromise your servers over the last month. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this problem?
A. The network scanner needs to be replaced.
B. The network scanner is no substitute for scans conducted by an individual.
C. The network scanner has atrojan.
D. The network scanner needs an update.
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
What is the primary use of hash (one-way) encryption in networking?
A. Signing files, for data integrity
B. Encrypting files, for data confidentiality
C. Key exchange, for user authentication
D. User authentication, for non-repudiation
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
Which of the following will best help you ensure a database server can withstand a recently discovered vulnerability?
A. Updating the company vulnerability scanner and conducting a new scan
B. Adding a buffer overflow rule to the intrusion detection system
C. Reconfiguring the firewall
D. Installing a system update
200-155 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
You have determined that the company Web server has several vulnerabilities, including a buffer overflow that has resulted in an attack. The Web server uses PHP and has direct connections to an Oracle database server. It also uses many CGI scripts. Which of the following is the most effective way to respond to this attack?
A. Installing software updates for the Web server daemon
B. Using the POST method instead of the GET method for a Web form
C. Installing an intrusion detection service to monitor logins
D. Using the GET method instead of the POST method for a Web form
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Which of the following standards is used for digital certificates?
A. DES
B. Diffie-Hellman
C. X.509
D. RC5
200-155 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
At the beginning of an IPsec session, which activity occurs during the Internet Key Exchange (IKE)?
A. Determining the number of security associations
B. Negotiating the authentication method
C. Determining the network identification number
D. Negotiating the version of IP to be used
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
A security breach has occurred in which a third party was able to obtain and misuse legitimate authentication information. After investigation, you determined that the specific cause for the breach was that end users have been placing their passwords underneath their keyboards. Which step will best help you resolve this problem?
A. Discipline specific end users as object lessons to the rest of the staff and reset passwords on all systems immediately.
B. Change all passwords on the company servers immediately and inform end users that their passwords will be changing on a regular basis.
C. Set passwords to expire at specific intervals and establish mandatory continual training sessions.
D. Inform end users that their passwords will be changing on a regular basis and require more complex passwords.
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
You have implemented a version of the Kerberos protocol for your network. What service does Kerberos primarily offer?
A. Authentication
B. Encryption
C. Non-repudiation
D. Data integrity
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
Consider the following series of commands from a Linux system: iptables -A input -p icmp -s 0/0 0/0 -j REJECT Which explanation best describes the impact of the resulting firewall ruleset?
A. Individuals on remote networks will no longer be able to use SSH to control internal network resources.
B. Internal hosts will not be able to ping each other using ICMP.
C. Stateful multi-layer inspection has been enabled.
D. Individuals on remote networks will not be able to use ping to troubleshoot connections.
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
A CGI application on the company’s Web server has a bug written into it. This particular bug allows the application to write data into an area of memory that has not been properly allocated to the application. An
attacker has created an application that takes advantage of this bug to obtain credit card information. Which of the following security threats is the attacker exploiting, and what can be done to solve the problem?
A. – Buffer overflow – Work with the Web developer to solve the problem
B. – SQL injection – Work with a database administrator to solve the problem
C. – Denial of service – Contact the organization that wrote the code for the Web server
D. – Man-in-the-middle attack – Contact the company auditor
Correct Answer: A

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CompTIA Nine Steps to Build a Successful Channel Business

T Association CompTIA says that macro forces such as cloud migration and transformation applications need a channel strategy and channel planning, like data explosion growth, building a channel business requires a finger pointing to the pulse of business technology consumers and the macro forces that drive change to keep ahead of the fast-changing it world and its impact on businesses. Software that is services (SaaS), cloud computing, sensor based data collection and new partnerships are dramatically changing channel patterns.

CompTIA News

A deliberate and well-planned channel model that is consistent with the business transition market is critical to the success of long-term indirect channels. Building, piloting, evaluating and perfecting the model is more important than ever. Channel leaders must also consistently learn and develop to meet the needs of the company and the market. CompTIA has provided nine steps for the development of the channel business, which is part of a quick start guide to the Channel Strategy guide

  • Determining the reasons for establishing channels

Companies tend to consider indirect strategies when increasing the number of direct sales resources is not the actual way to build revenue. However, businesses can also benefit from channels in other ways, including products or services that are not independent products, or growth strategies that include new geographic areas or vertical markets.

  • Market validation

Validating partners’ opportunities is necessary to ensure that partners have compelling business claims. The business proposition of a partner is different from the end-user’s value proposition. The motivations and indicators of success are different. The business proposition of partners addresses the key reasons why this relationship is beneficial to suppliers and partners. Develop successful partnerships when goals and strategies are aligned.

CompTIA News

  • Make sure the company is ready

Several internal issues need to be addressed to ensure that the company is ready to cooperate with the channel. Real preparation comes from all levels of the organization and directly affects the competitiveness of the channel. Before launching the channel strategy, ensure that the organization has the same leadership and support, channel team roles and support, and channel tools and resources to ensure the success of the channel.

  • Ensure the preparation of products and services

How suppliers prepare channel value and channel readiness will be an important part of ensuring successful product launches. Some of these factors include: clear product information; Awareness of existing and emerging markets; Competitive pricing and service and support. Training is critical to the ability of most partners to achieve product success. If a partner cannot intelligently discuss the product as part of a solution set, they cannot effectively sell it. The result is a longer increase in the number and revenue targets.

  • Choosing the right partner
Choosing the right partner type is a key factor in success. Define channel categories and types to understand how the channel types differ and how the sales patterns Help the vendor partner portfolio. Learn about their sales patterns, what’s most important to them, and how they get funded. Understanding the business model of a partner will help vendors understand what types of partners are best for them and how to build business ideas that will attract them to participate in the organization. A comprehensive entry-level training program should cover the signing of a dashed line from a partner to a fully skilled time period and provide sustainable revenue for the business.
  • Assessment and validation

Once the partner joins and the plan is in place, it is time to assess whether the enterprise has made the right decision and validated the strategy. This is also the best time to implement any course revisions in the plan to get the desired results.

CompTIA News

  • Growth lever
The final stage of the channel success model is to assess the leverage of business growth to scale up business and create sustainable sources of revenue with partners. These growth factors are needed when channel initiatives reach a more mature state, which means that there are multiple partners working with the company and driving sustainable revenue. Driving and driving growth levers include: changes to organization, role and responsibility; (a) Introduction of new tools and resources; And business intelligence, scorecards and reviews.

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[New Updated] Most Important CCNA Data Center DCICN 640-911 Dumps PDF Exam Questions Youtube Study Covers All Key Points

Who can share new Cisco 640-911 dumps?”Introducing Cisco Data Center Networking” also known as 640-911 exam, is a Cisco certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Most Important CCNA Data Center DCICN 640-911 dumps PDF exam questions Youtube study covers all key points. Pass4itsure Cisco 640-911 dumps exam questions answers are updated (208 Q&As) are verified by experts.

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Exam Code: 640-911
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Networking
Q&As: 208

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QUESTION 99
The dot1x command is used to enable 802.1x authentication globally or on an interface. Which statements
about the undo dot1x command are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. It is used to disable 802.1x authentication globally.
B. It will disconnect online users from the interface; therefore, use the command with caution.
C. It is used to disable 802.1x authentication on an interface.
D. Ensure that there are no online users before you run the undo dot1x command. Otherwise, running the
undo dot1x command fails.
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 100
The dot1x authentication-method command is used to set the 802.1x authentication mode. Which is the
most secure authentication mode?
A. PAP
B. EAP
C. CHAP
D. EAP-TTLS
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 101
Which statements about guest VLAN configuration are true? (Select 3 Answers)
A. The guest VLAN must be created before you configure the guest VLAN.
B. The default VLAN of the interface cannot be configured as the guest VLAN.
C. Different interfaces can be configured with different guest VLANs.
D. An interface can be configured with up to eight guest VLANs.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 102
If you have run the dot1x port-method command with the port parameter specified (port-based 802.1x
authentication), the maximum number of users on an interface changes to 1. In this case, which
statements are true? (Select 2 Answers)
A. You can run the dot1x max-user command to change the maximum number of access users.
B. You cannot run the dot1x max-user command to set the maximum number of access users.
C. You need to run the undo dot1x port-method command, and then set the maximum number of access
users.
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: BC

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